Nursing Leadership & Management NCLEX Practice Quiz #2 (40 Questions)

Apr 28, | Writing

Nursing Leadership & Management NCLEX Practice Quiz #2 (40 Questions)

Question-02-001

Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident, and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take?

• A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction.
• B. Disregard what she feels and continues to work independently.
• C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing.
• D. Quit her job and look for another employment.

Correct Answer: A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction 

This involves a problem-solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the problem. Seek to understand the underlying emotions of the employees in conflict. Employers can manage workplace conflict by creating an organizational culture designed to preclude conflict as much as possible and by dealing promptly and equitably with conflicts that employees cannot resolve among themselves.

• Option B: Do not ignore conflict, and do not avoid taking steps to prevent it. Unresolved issues of interpersonal tension and conflict can create emotional stress for employees, politicize the workplace and divert attention from the organization’s mission.
• Option C: Before escalating the conflict to the Director of Nursing, the unit manager should first try to de escalate the problem. If a manager has mechanisms in place to resolve conflict at its early stages, employees will generally see their employer as fair in their dealings with them and will likely be more satisfied with their jobs.
• Option D: If the manager does not act, conflicts will escalate into larger problems, discrimination and harassment complaints may increase, and the employer’s reputation could be damaged. When employees mistrust management or perceive the organization as acting unfairly, turnover may increase. This can lead to recruiting and training expenses for new hires and the costs attributable to slippage of performance until new employees become fully proficient in their jobs.

Question-02-002

As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict is not true?

• A. Can be destructive if the level is too high.
• B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.
• C. May result in poor performance.
• D. May create leaders.

Correct Answer: B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.

Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues in the open and can be solved right away. Likewise, members of the team become more conscientious with their work when they are aware that other members of the team are watching them. What conflicts do is that they encourage debate and competition which is good for almost any environment. Also, it improves team culture and allows people to learn more.

• Option A: The most obvious disadvantage of conflict is the toll on emotions. When employees feel they are being bullied, taken advantage of, or facing favoritism, they may begin looking for another job or performing poorly. Conflicts between departments can disrupt production, and result in lost business or customers.
• Option C: Unscheduled absences drive up employers’ costs through benefits outlays, the use of replacement workers, higher stress levels among employees, and a decrease in overall employee performance.
• Option D: With more workplace conflicts, the team may accomplish its goals in no time. This does sound surprising to most of us but it is very true. Conflicts are a vital part of work culture and they nourish the minds in several ways.

Question-02-003

Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use?

• A. Smoothing
• B. Compromise
• C. Avoidance
• D. Restriction

Correct Answer: C. Avoidance 

This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect, the problem remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation. Someone who uses a strategy of “avoiding” mostly tries to ignore or sidestep the conflict, hoping it will resolve itself or dissipate.

• Option A: Smoothing is not a conflict resolution strategy. One example is accommodating. Accommodating is a strategy where one party gives in to the wishes or demands of another. They’re being cooperative but not assertive. This may appear to be a gracious way to give in when one figures out s/he has been wrong about an argument.
• Option B: The strategy of “compromising” involves finding an acceptable resolution that will partly, but not entirely, satisfy the concerns of all parties involved. The concept is that everyone gives up a little bit of what they want, and no one gets everything they want. The perception of the best outcome when working by compromise is that which “splits the difference.” 
• Option D: Restriction is not one of the strategies for conflict resolution. Another example is competing. Competing is used by people who go into a conflict planning to win. They’re assertive and not cooperative. This method is characterized by the assumption that one side wins and everyone else lose. It doesn’t allow room for diverse perspectives into a well-informed total picture.

Question-02-004

Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?

• A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.
• B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention.
• C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
• D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

Correct Answer: D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help. 

Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burnout. Knowing that someone is ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is enhanced. Even though the entire team may be experiencing burnout, have conversations on an individual basis. Addressing the entire group can be intimidating and make it difficult for members to open up.

• Option A: Allowing them to have more flexible schedules can be a huge help. This gives them the time and space to address their personal needs, whether that’s serving as a caregiver, going to doctor’s appointments, or whatever it is they need to address.
• Option B: Regardless of the reason, it’s important to speak directly with the team members to understand the burnout’s root cause. This will not only help identify how to best help the team, but it’ll also demonstrate that the manager has noticed they’re not being themselves and want to help them overcome this obstacle.
• Option C: It’s easy to approach an employee and assume what the problem is. Try to avoid doing this. Create an open space for team members to confirm what’s actually going on, instead of steering the conversation in a certain direction.

Question-02-005

She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities except:

• A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.
• B. Using agency standards as a guide.
• C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses.
• D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Correct Answer: D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior. 

Performance appraisal deal with both positive and negative performance; is not meant to be a fault-finding activity. A performance appraisal is a regular review of an employee’s job performance and overall contribution to a company. Also known as an annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal, a performance appraisal evaluates an employee’s skills, achievements, and growth–or lack thereof.

• Option A: Performance appraisals provide a way for companies to determine which employees have contributed the most to the company’s growth so companies can reward their top-performing employees accordingly.
• Option B: Companies use performance appraisals to determine which employees have contributed the most to the company’s growth, review progress, and reward high-achieving workers.
• Option C: Performance appraisals are used to review the job performance of an employee over some period of time. These reviews are used to highlight both strengths and weaknesses in order to improve future performance.

Question-02-006

Which of the following statements is not true about performance appraisal?

• A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.
• B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report.
• C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
• D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Correct Answer: C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal. 

The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is never the best source. Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel appraisal. The supervisor analyses the factors behind the work performances of employees. Through performance appraisal, the employers can understand and accept the skills of subordinates.

• Option A: Performance appraisal serves as a motivation tool. Through evaluating the performance of employees, a person’s efficiency can be determined if the targets are achieved. This very well motivates a person for a better job and helps him to improve his performance in the future.
• Option B: Performance appraisals enable superiors to know what their team members are up to, evaluate their performances and also give them correct feedbacks so that they know where they are lacking and work on their shortcomings.
• Option D: Performance Appraisal helps the supervisors to chalk out the promotion programs for efficient employees. In this regard, inefficient workers can be dismissed or demoted in case.

Question-02-007

There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is not a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?

• A. The staff member is observed in a natural setting.
• B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration are allowed.
• C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
• D. The evaluation may provide valid information for the compilation of a formal report.

Correct Answer: C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically. 

Collecting objective data systems can not be achieved in an informal appraisal. It is focused on what actually happens in the natural work setting. Informal appraisals give an employee a more current, ongoing perspective on performance. It helps avoid delivering positive or negative surprises in a formal review, which is important for internal communication. The manager also has the ability to motivate better performance and stem problems quickly. A drawback of informal evaluations is that the manager doesn’t plan for them as with a formal review.

• Option A: Informal appraisals occur when a manager provides significant feedback and direction to an employee outside of a formal review meeting. Consistent, informal feedback is important to build rapport with employees and to coach them in an ongoing manner.
• Option B: A contrast to immediate praise is immediate criticism or negative feedback. This approach is applied when you spot an employee making a mistake, making a poor decision, or simply underperforming. Similar to positive feedback, the immediacy of constructive criticism is important. You need to address the undesirable behavior right away so the employee knows the specifics of the incident at the moment.
• Option D: A positive version of informal appraisal feedback occurs when a manager notices an employee performing well, overcoming an obstacle, or achieving a goal, and offers praise. The point is to immediately reinforce the desired behavior or achievement so that the employee is compelled to perform in a similar or better way going forward.

Question-02-008

She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate?

• A. She asks another nurse to attest to the session as a witness.
• B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over.
• C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.
• D. The session is private between the two members.

Correct Answer: D. The session is private between the two members. 

The session is private between the manager and the staff and remains to be so when the two parties do not divulge the information to others. The rating procedure, appraisal form, or any other related information ought to be sent to each and every individual separately. Do not mark a common mail to everyone.

• Option A: A small business with few employees may choose to use an informal approach with employees. This entails meeting with each employee every six months or once a year and discussing an individual’s work performance and progress since the last discussion.
• Option B: Part of the appraisal system is the actual communication of the performance assessment. While this assessment may be written, it should always be provided verbally as well. This provides an opportunity to answer any questions the employee may have on the assessment, as well as to provide context or further detail for brief assessments.
• Option C: The performance of employees, especially in a smaller firm, is an essential factor in any company’s ability to meet its goals. In a one-person business, goal-setting and achieving is a matter of transforming words into action, but moving the business towards its goals in a larger firm means that the employer has to figure out each person’s role in that success, communicate that role to him or her, and reward or correct their performance.

Question-02-009

Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. She is aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through downward and upward channels, and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style of management?

• A. Benevolent –authoritative
• B. Consultative
• C. Exploitive-authoritative
• D. Participative

Correct Answer: B. Consultative

A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative manager has complete trust and confidence in the subordinates, always uses the opinions and ideas of subordinates, and communicates in all directions. Consultative leadership is a leadership style that targets team building and uses the skills of others to create plans and make decisions. Leaders consult with their team to obtain their suggestions and opinions to help them make informed and strategic decisions.

• Option A: In the benevolent-autocratic leadership style, the manager has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates, motivates with rewards and some punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits some ideas and opinions from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close policy control.
• Option C: In the exploitative-authoritative leadership style, the manager has no confidence or trust in subordinates. Subordinates feel no freedom to discuss things about the job with their superiors. In solving job problems, the manager seldom gets the ideas and opinions of subordinates.
• Option D: Participative leadership is a style of leadership in which all members of the organization work together to make decisions. Participative leadership is also known as democratic leadership, as everyone is encouraged to participate. The participative leadership decision-making process can take many forms, but the key element is collective input from all members of the organization.

Question-02-010

She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is not included?

• A. Level of authority
• B. Lines of communication
• C. Span of control
• D. Unity of direction

Correct Answer: D. Unity of direction 

Unity of direction is a management principle, not an element of an organizational structure. The principle of unity of direction implies that there should be ”one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objective”. In other words, each group of activities having the same objectives must have one plan of action and must be under the control of one manager or superior. An organization or group having different plans and more than one head cannot achieve the desired results.

• Option A: Distributing authority is another important building block in structuring organizations. Authority in the organization is the right in a position and, through it, the right of the person occupying the position to exercise discretion in making decisions affecting others.
• Option B: Organizational structures also rest somewhere on a spectrum of centralization. Generally, more conservative corporate entities adopt a centralized structure. In this design, C-level managers make all the decisions, management designs a plan for execution, and front-line employees carry out that plan. 
• Option C: An organization’s span of control defines how many employees each manager is responsible for within the company. There is no single type of span of control that’s ideal for all companies or even for all businesses in a specific industry.

Question-02-011

She plans on assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?

• A. Staffing
• B. Scheduling
• C. Recruitment
• D. Induction

Correct Answer: A. Staffing

Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks and activities to attain the goals of the organization. Staffing is the function by which managers build an organization through the recruitment, selection, development, of individuals as capable employees.

• Option B: The scheduling function consists of organizing activities in a specific system imposing some rules to respect. More generally, solving a scheduling problem can be reduced to the organization and the synchronization of a set of activities (jobs or tasks) by exploiting the available capacities (resources).
• Option C: Recruitment is the process of attracting, evaluating, and hiring employees for an organization. The recruitment process includes four steps: job analysis, sourcing, screening and selection, and onboarding.
• Option D: Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.

Question-02-012

She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for the staff nurse position. Which one is not necessary?

• A. Certificate of previous employment
• B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
• C. Membership to an accredited professional organization
• D. Professional identification card

Correct Answer: B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE) 

Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes but it is required for the nurse’s licensure examination. Related Learning Experience (RLE) is a teaching-learning opportunity designed to advance the competencies of students utilizing methods in various health situations. Related learning experience provides an opportunity for the student-nurses to practice what has been learned in the classroom.

• Option A: A certificate of employment, also called an employment certificate, is used to verify the employment history of a former or current employee. If the employee is no longer employed by the employer, the employer usually issues the certificate of employment upon request by the employee. It is usually requested to complete the requirements for employment with a new employer.
• Option C: A professional organization, sometimes referred to as a professional association or professional body, exists to advance a particular profession, support the interests of people working in that profession and serve the public good. It facilitates innovation, communication, and connection.
• Option D: Professional Identification is a type of social identification and is the sense of oneness individuals have with a profession (e.g. law, medicine) and the degree to which individuals define themselves as professional members.

Question-02-013

Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary requirements?

• A. Orientation
• B. Induction
• C. Selection
• D. Recruitment

Correct Answer: B. Induction

This step in the recruitment process gives time for the staff to submit all the documentary requirements for employment. Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.

• Option A: In this stage, new hires are given job- or task-specific orientation, typically by their immediate supervisor. New employees learn details about their specific department or team, including information about breaks, absences, parking facilities, personal phone calls, email and internet policy, as well as the standards of performance for their work.
• Option C: Screening of applications can be regarded as an integral part of the recruiting process, though many view it as the first step in the selection process. Even the definition of recruitment excludes screening from its scope.
• Option D: Recruitment is a process of finding and attracting the potential resources for filling up vacant positions in an organization. It sources the candidates with the abilities and attitudes, which are required for achieving the objectives of an organization.

Question-02-014

She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involves workers in decision-making. Which form of organizational structure is this?

• A. Centralized
• B. Decentralized
• C. Matrix
• D. Informal

Correct Answer: B. Decentralized 

Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters pertaining to their practice and communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow. Decentralization is a type of organizational structure in which daily operations and decision-making responsibilities are delegated by top management to middle and lower-level managers.

• Option A: Centralized management is the organizational structure where a small handful of individuals make most of the decisions in a company. More centralized management is usually seen in highly competitive industries, where companies specialize in similar products to their competition.
• Option C: A matrix organizational structure is a workplace format in which employees report to two or more managers rather than one manager overseeing every aspect of a project. For example, an employee may have a primary manager they report to as well as one or more project managers they work under.
• Option D: The informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together in practice. It is the aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms, and personal/professional connections through which work gets done and relationships are built among people.

Question-02-015

In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the

• A. Leftmost box
• B. Middle
• C. Rightmost box
• D. Bottom

Correct Answer: C. Rightmost box

The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority while the lowest level worker occupies the rightmost box. A horizontal organizational structure has fewer layers, normally two or three. It doesn’t have many chains of command.

• Option A: The third layers are team members supervised by the managers or team leaders in the second layer. The horizontal org chart has eliminated many middle management levels, thus can be considered as employee-centered with emphasis on teamwork and collaboration.
• Option B: The second layer contains managers or team leaders who report to the business owner. Without going through complicated hierarchies, employees have more contact with managers and even business owners.
• Option D: A horizontal organization has few – if any – managers because the focus is on empowering the staff members and removing any barriers between the executive level and the staff level.

Question-02-016

She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?

• A. Greater control of activities.
• B. Conserves time.
• C. Compatible with computerization.
• D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.

Correct Answer: D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships. 

Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve decisions by themselves, involve them in decision making; hence they are always given opportunities to interact with one another. Decentralization improves the level of job satisfaction as well as employee morale, especially amongst the lower-level managers.

• Option A: Lower-level managers can alter production schedules and work assignments with adequate authority. They can even take disciplinary actions and recommend the promotion of their peers.
• Option B: Another important pointer in the advantages and disadvantages of decentralization is that decisions are taken and executed by authorized personnel. This, in turn, results in faster and accurate decisions which are well aware of the real scenario. This, in turn, leads to greater efficiency in supervision. Performance evaluation of each decentralized unit helps in exercising adequate control.
• Option C: Under decentralization, every single product division attains sufficient autonomy to exercise its creative flair. In this way, the top-level management can create healthy competition amongst different divisions.

Question-02-017

Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is not done by a primary nurse?

• A. Collaborates with the physician.
• B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.
• C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.
• D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment.

Correct Answer: B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses. 

This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that provides care for a group of patients. Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is identified as the point of contact and primary caregiver for a patient during his or her particular hospital stay or other episodes of care. As envisioned by staff nurses at the University of Minnesota in 1969, the primary care nursing team is composed of that lead nurse, who directly supervises the engagement of a licensed practical nurse and/or nursing assistant in that patient’s care.

• Option A: Further, the primary care nurse acts as a care partner, serving as a communications liaison between the patient and his or her doctor and other care team members. (In many facilities and systems, the position of nurse practitioner has been created to fulfill this role.)
• Option C: The primary nursing model is hailed by proponents as creating a better bond and trust relationship between patients and caregivers, thanks to that single-source relationship. They say that the patient’s care is elevated by having that single nurse overseeing its delivery and that its structure empowers the nurse to utilize managerial abilities as well as deploy their best bedside care.
• Option D: Primary health care (PHC) is a principle-based, comprehensive approach. It focuses on the way services are delivered, from birth to death, across the continuum of care in all settings. 

Question-02-018

Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who takes care of patients with the same disease conditions and is located geographically near each other?

• A. Case method
• B. Modular nursing
• C. Nursing case management
• D. Team nursing

Correct Answer: B. Modular nursing 

Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The difference lies in the fact that the members in modular nursing are paraprofessional workers. Modular Nursing is a modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s geographic location for staff assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called districts or pods.

• Option A: In case method, the nurse cares for one patient whom the nurse cares for exclusively. The Case Method evolved into what is now called private duty nursing. It was the first type of nursing care delivery system.
• Option C: Nursing case management provides a continuum of health care services for defined groups of patients. Its literature is multidisciplinary, emphasizing clinical specialties, case management methodology, and the health care system. Case management is a care delivery model designed to coordinate and manage patient care across the continuum of health care systems.
• Option D: The goal of team nursing is for a team to work democratically. In the ideal team, an RN is assigned as a Team Leader for a group of patients. The Team Leader has a core of staff reporting to her, and together they work to disseminate the care activities.

Question-02-019

St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system?

• A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses.
• B. Identify the values of the department.
• C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria.
• D. Measure actual performances.

Correct Answer: B. Identify the values of the department 

Identify the values of the department will set the guiding principles within which the department will operate its activities. Some control techniques, such as those involving standard hours and costs, budgets, and various financial ratios, have general application in various situations.

• Option A: Control techniques should reflect the plans they are designed to follow. Managers need the information that will tell them how the plans for which they are responsible are progressing. An effective control system will disclose where failures are occurring and who is/are responsible for the failures and it will ensure that some corrective action is taken.
• Option C: Control systems and information are, of course, intended to help individual managers carry out their function of control. An effective control system must fit in with the organizational culture. If employees have been managed without allowing them any participation in decision-making, the sudden introduction of a permissive control system will hardly succeed.
• Option D: As far as possible the information provided by the control system should be objective. If on the other hand, controls are subjective, a manager’s or an executive’s personality may influence judgments of performance and make them less accurate. Thus, the control system should ideally provide objective information to the manager for evaluation and action.

Question-02-020

Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure standard?

• A. The patients verbalized satisfaction with the nursing care received.
• B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
• C. All patients shall have their weights recorded.
• D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge.

Correct Answer: B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel. 

Structure standards include management systems, facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to patients. Rotation of duty is a management system. A nursing care standard is a descriptive statement of desired quality against which to evaluate nursing care. It is a guideline. A guideline is a recommended path to safe-conduct, an aid to professional performance.

• Option A: Standards give direction and provide guidelines for the performance of nursing staff. Standards provide a baseline for evaluating the quality of nursing care. Standards statement must be broad enough to apply to a wide variety of settings.
• Option C: Standards must be understandable and stated in unambiguous terms. Standards may help to determine the degree to which standards of nursing care maintained and take necessary corrective action in time.
• Option D: Standards may help to improve the basis for decision-making and devise an alternative system for delivering nursing care. Standards must be reviewed and revised periodically. Standards may be directed towards ideal (ie, optional) standards or may only specify the minimal care that must be attained (ie, minimum standard).

Question-02-021

When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards?

• A. Process
• B. Outcome
• C. Structure
• D. Criteria

Correct Answer: A. Process 

Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The development of standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.

• Option B: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.
• Option C: Structure standards focus on the settings and environment in which nursing is practiced. This approach may be most suitable for standards developed at the local operational level and written within the framework of the broader standards developed at the national level. 
• Option D: Criteria is the plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.

Question-02-022

The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is not included?

• A. Measure actual performance.
• B. Set nursing standards and criteria.
• C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives.
• D. Identify possible courses of action.

Correct Answer: D. Identify possible courses of action 

This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic step in the control process. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

• Option A: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some degree.
• Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or customer service.
• Option C: Effective controlling requires the existence of plans since planning provides the necessary performance standards or objectives. Controlling also requires a clear understanding of where responsibility for deviations from standards lies.

Question-02-023

Which of the following statements refers to criteria?

• A. Agreed on level of nursing care.
• B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.
• C. Step-by-step guidelines.
• D. Statement which guides the group in decision making and problem-solving.

Correct Answer: B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care. 

Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the standard of care. Criteria is the plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.

• Option A: Level of care can be defined as the intensity of effort required to diagnose, treat, preserve or maintain an individual’s physical or emotional status. An alternate level of care is a level of care that can safely be used in place of the current level and determined based on the acuity and complexity of the patient’s condition and the type of needed services and resources. 
• Option C: The nursing process functions as a systematic guide to client-centered care with 5 sequential steps. These are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
• Option D: Decision-making in acute care nursing requires an evaluation of many complex factors. While decision-making research in acute care nursing is prevalent, errors in decision-making continue leading to poor patient outcomes.

Question-02-024

She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is not included in the controlling process?

A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies.

B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital.

C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff.

D. Checking if activities conform to the schedule.

Correct Answer: A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies 

Instructing the members involves a directing function. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

• Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or customer service.
• Option C: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some degree.
• Option D: The managerial function of controlling should not be confused with control in the behavioral or manipulative sense. This function of management concerns the manager’s role in taking necessary actions to ensure that the work-related activities of subordinates are consistent with and contributing toward the accomplishment of organizational and departmental objectives.

Question-02-025

Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is not a process standard?

• A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty-four hours upon admission.
• B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure.
• C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
• D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.

Correct Answer: C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.

This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the patient. Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.

• Option A: Fundamentally, process standardization describes the establishment of a set of rules governing how people in an organization are supposed to complete a given task or sequence of tasks.
• Option B: When done well, standardization can decrease ambiguity and guesswork, guarantee quality, boost productivity, and increase employee morale. It improves clarity because a standard process will eliminate the need for guesswork or extra searching
• Option D: Standardization promotes productivity by eliminating inefficiency. This is the result of eliminating ambiguity and providing quality control: tasks are completed in a more efficient manner, and there are fewer quality control issues from tasks that were not completed correctly the first time around.

Question-02-026

Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?

• A. The things that were planned are done.
• B. Physicians do not complain.
• C. Employees are content.
• D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.

Correct Answer: A. The things that were planned are done 

Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

• Option B: Outcome standards measure the effectiveness of the service. They are set according to the type of service provided and the data are collected through systematic use of specific measurement tools such as questionnaires or comparison between pre-test and post-test performance.
• Option C: Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The development of standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.
• Option D: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.

Question-02-027

Ms. Valencia is responsible for the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to:

A. Span of control

B. Unity of command

C. Carrot and stick principle

D. Esprit de corps

Correct Answer: A. Span of control 

The span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager. The span of control determines the level of interactions and responsibilities associated with employees and managers. The process is used to determine the management style and it also defines roles within the organization. 

• Option B: Unity of command means an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
• Option C: The carrot and stick approach of motivation is a traditional motivation theory that asserts, in motivating people to elicit desired behaviors, sometimes the rewards are given in the form of money, promotion, and any other financial or non-financial benefits, and sometimes the punishments are exerted to push an individual towards the desired behavior.
• Option D: According to the principle of esprit d’ corps, it is the responsibility of the management to motivate their employees and be supportive of each other regularly. Developing trust and mutual understanding will lead to a positive outcome and work environment.

Question-02-028

She notes that there is increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by the shortage of staff. Which action is a priority?

• A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest.
• B. Initiate a group interaction.
• C. Develop a plan and implement it.
• D. Identify external and internal forces.

Correct Answer: B. Initiate a group interaction 

Initiating a group interaction will be an opportunity to discuss the problem in the open. Managers should communicate conflict resolution policies and processes to create a sense of safety in the workplace and provide an outlet for employees to report incidents should they feel the need. It is also important to ensure that employees understand any no retaliation policies regarding expressing concerns in the workplace. 

• Option A: To help employees cope, employers can consider implementing an employee assistance program (EAP). An EAP will help alleviate stress and worry, connect employees with the resources they need to manage their mental health and help prevent potential violence before it occurs.
• Option C: Having a plan in place helps organizations remain calm during a chaotic situation. A business continuity plan should detail how the business will respond to a variety of situations.
• Option D: Understanding the community, developing processes to address a variety of “what if” scenarios, and exemplifying appropriate behavior will help employers maintain a civil workplace and squash conflicts before they get out of hand.

Question-02-029

Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of patient satisfaction with the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with an average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?

• A. Date of admission
• B. Length of stay
• C. Age of patients
• D. Absence of complications

Correct Answer: C. Age of patients

An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of the researcher but has an effect on the results of the study. Adult patients may be young, middle, or late adults. Extraneous variables are those that produce an association between two variables that are not causally related.

• Option A: The date of admission is an independent variable. An independent variable is a variable believed to affect the dependent variable. This is the variable that the researcher will manipulate to see if it makes the dependent variable change.
• Option B: The length of stay is an independent variable because it can also affect the dependent variable, which is the level of satisfaction of the patients. To reiterate, the independent variable is the thing over which the researcher has control and is manipulating.
• Option D: The absence of complications is another independent variable because it can also affect the level of satisfaction of the patients. The experiment’s dependent variable is the ball throwing, which will hopefully change due to the independent variable. The scientific sentence is, ‘You are going to manipulate an independent variable to see what happens to the dependent variable.’

Question-02-030

He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?

• A. Martha Rogers
• B. Sr. Callista Roy
• C. Florence Nightingale
• D. Jean Watson

Correct Answer: B. Sr. Callista Roy 

Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function mode, and dependence mode. Developed by Roy in 1976, the Adaptation Model of Nursing asks three central questions: Who is the focus of nursing care? What is the target of nursing care? and When is nursing care indicated? This model looks at the patient from a holistic perspective.

• Option A: Martha Rogers’ theory is known as the Science of Unitary Human Beings (SUHB). The theory views nursing as both a science and an art as it provides a way to view the unitary human being, who is integral with the universe. The unitary human being and his or her environment are one. 
• Option C: The Environmental Theory by Florence Nightingale defined Nursing as “the act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery.” It involves the nurse’s initiative to configure environmental settings appropriate for the gradual restoration of the patient’s health and that external factors associated with the patient’s surroundings affect the life or biologic and physiologic processes and his development.
• Option D: Jean Watson’s “Philosophy and Theory of Transpersonal Caring” mainly concerns how nurses care for their patients and how that caring progresses into better plans to promote health and wellness, prevent illness and restore health.

Question-02-031

He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is not true about this method?

• A. Most direct means of gathering information.
• B. Versatile in terms of content coverage.
• C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.
• D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method.

Correct Answer: C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.

The most serious disadvantage of this method is the accuracy and validity of the information gathered. Self-reporting is a common approach for gathering data in epidemiologic and medical research. This method requires participants to respond to the researcher’s questions without his/her interference.

• Option A: In general, they are inexpensive and simple to administer, making it possible to collect a broad amount of data in a short time. Today, the possibility of online surveys has made data collection even easier.
• Option B: Another important consideration is the relevance of the questions for the specific participants of the survey. If the participant finds the topic interesting and relevant, they are more motivated to respond and complete all the questions.
• Option D: In addition, the results can be automatically collected, reducing the risk of errors occurring with manual registration processes. Further, the results are not dependent on an interviewer´s interpretation of behavior, which may influence the results from a clinical interview.

Question-02-032

Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?

• A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”
• B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
• C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”
• D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”

Correct Answer: A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients” 

The article is for pediatric patients and may not be relevant for adult patients. A literature review surveys books, scholarly articles, and any other sources relevant to a particular issue, area of research, or theory, and by so doing, provides a description, summary, and critical evaluation of these works in relation to the research problem being investigated.

• Option B: Literature reviews are designed to provide an overview of sources explored while researching a particular topic and to demonstrate to the readers how the research fits within a larger field of study.
• Option C: A literature review may consist of simply a summary of key sources, but in the social sciences, a literature review usually has an organizational pattern and combines both summary and synthesis, often within specific conceptual categories.
• Option D: It is important to think of knowledge in a given field as consisting of three layers. First, there are the primary studies that researchers conduct and publish. Second, are the reviews of those studies that summarize and offer new interpretations built from and often extending beyond the primary studies. Third, there are the perceptions, conclusions, opinions, and interpretations that are shared informally that become part of the lore of the field.

Question-02-033

Which of the following variables will he likely exclude in his study?

• A. Competence of nurses
• B. Caring attitude of nurses
• C. Salary of nurses
• D. Responsiveness of staff

Correct Answer: C. Salary of nurses

The salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient satisfaction, hence need not be included as a variable in the study. A variable in research simply refers to a person, place, thing, or phenomenon that the researcher is trying to measure in some way. The best way to understand the difference between a dependent and independent variable is that the meaning of each is implied by what the words tell us about the variable the researcher is using.

• Option A: The competence of nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. The variable that is stable and unaffected by the other variables the researcher is trying to measure. It refers to the condition of an experiment that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It is the presumed cause.
• Option B: The caring attitude of the nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. An important distinction has to do with the term ‘variable’ is the distinction between an independent and dependent variable. This distinction is particularly relevant when the researcher is investigating cause-effect relationships.
• Option D: The responsiveness of the staff can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. Anything that can vary can be considered a variable. For instance, age can be considered a variable because age can take different values for different people or for the same person at different times.

Question-02-034

He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine:

• A. Degree of agreement and disagreement
• B. Compliance to expected standards
• C. Level of satisfaction
• D. Degree of acceptance

Correct Answer: A. Degree of agreement and disagreement 

Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the respondents to a statement in a study. The Likert scale question is a psychometric scale where questions based on this scale are used in a survey. It is one of the most widely used question types in a survey. In a Likert scale survey, respondents don’t choose between ‘yes/no,’ there are specific choices based on ‘agreeing’ or ‘disagreeing’ on a particular survey question.

• Option B: A compliance survey captures statements of compliance on specific issues from various constituencies. Using an online survey to gather such declaration or representation makes the process extremely efficient.
• Option C: A numeric scale is a type of rating scale that requires the respondent to provide his or her feedback in terms of numerical values. This type of rating scale equates comparative survey response options to an ordered set of numerical values so that respondents can quantify their opinions. 
• Option D: A multi-checkbox scale is a type of rating scale that lists different positive and negative attributes that describe a survey respondent’s perception of a product, service, or experience. The multi-checkbox scale is often used to assess a brand’s attitude, rate a user’s experience, or determine the quality of a product.

Question-02-035

He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?

• A. Validity
• B. Reliability
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Objectivity

Correct Answer: B. Reliability 

Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.

• Option A: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
• Option C: Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.
• Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible, researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

Question-02-036

Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?

• A. Sensitivity
• B. Reliability
• C. Validity
• D. Objectivity

Correct Answer: A. Sensitivity 

Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.

• Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
• Option C: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
• Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible, researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

Question-02-037

Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measured?

• A. Validity
• B. Reliability
• C. Meaningfulness
• D. Sensitivity

Correct Answer: A. Validity 

Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the research topic. Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.

• Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
• Option C: Meaningfulness is taking that statistic and determining its applicability out in the real world. So all too often researchers get caught up in chasing statistical significance. And while that’s part of statistics, the focus should tie back to the real world.
• Option D: Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.

Question-02-038

He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives an equal chance to all units in the population to get picked?

• A. Random
• B. Accidental
• C. Quota
• D. Judgment

Correct Answer: A. Random 

Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample. Random sampling is a part of the sampling technique in which each sample has an equal probability of being chosen. A sample chosen randomly is meant to be an unbiased representation of the total population. An unbiased random sample is important for drawing conclusions.

• Option B: Accidental sampling, also known as grab or opportunity sampling, is a form of non-probability sampling that involves taking a population sample that is close at hand, rather than carefully determined and obtained. Accidental samples are not as experimentally sound as using random sampling and random assignment.
• Option C: Quota sampling is defined as a non-probability sampling method in which researchers create a sample involving individuals that represent a population. Researchers choose these individuals according to specific traits or qualities.
• Option D: A judgment sample, or expert sample, is a type of random sample that is selected based on the opinion of an expert. Judgment sampling is noble to provide detailed information about the difficulties in obtaining the distinction. A random sample would provide less bias, but potentially less raw information.

Question-02-039

Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study?

• A. Grounded theory
• B. Ethnography
• C. Case study
• D. Phenomenology

Correct Answer: B. Ethnography

Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of selected people within a culture. Ethnography is a study through direct observation of users in their natural environment rather than in a lab. The objective of this type of research is to gain insights into how users interact with things in their natural environment.

• Option A: Grounded theory is a well-known methodology employed in many research studies. Grounded theory sets out to discover or construct theory from data, systematically obtained and analyzed using comparative analysis. While the grounded theory is inherently flexible, it is a complex methodology.
• Option C: A case study is a research approach that is used to generate an in-depth, multi-faceted understanding of a complex issue in its real-life context. It is an established research design that is used extensively in a wide variety of disciplines, particularly in the social sciences.
• Option D: Phenomenological research has overlapped with other essentially qualitative approaches including ethnography, hermeneutics, and symbolic interactionism. Pure phenomenological research seeks essentially to describe rather than explain, and to start from a perspective free from hypotheses or preconceptions (Husserl 1970).

Question-02-040

The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is

• A. Dorothea Orem
• B. Madeleine Leininger
• C. Betty Newman
• D. Sr. Callista Roy

Correct Answer: B. Madeleine Leininger

Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture. It involves learning and understanding various cultures regarding nursing and health-illness caring practices, beliefs, and values to implement significant and efficient nursing care services to people according to their cultural values and health-illness context.

• Option A: In her Self-Care Theory, she defined Nursing as “The act of assisting others in the provision and management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at the home level of effectiveness.”
• Option C: In Neuman’s System Model, she  defined nursing as a “unique profession in that is concerned with all of the variables affecting an individual’s response to stress.” The focus is on the client as a system (which may be an individual, family, group, or community) and on the client’s responses to stressors.
• Option D: In Adaptation Model, Roy defined nursing as a “health care profession that focuses on human life processes and patterns and emphasizes the promotion of health for individuals, families, groups, and society as a whole.”

NCLEX Practice Quiz (Questions and Answers + Explanations). Leadership & Management in Nursing

Apr 28, | Writing

Nursing Leadership & Management NCLEX Practice Quiz #1 (40 Questions)

-Question-01-001 

Ms. Caputo is newly promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in management and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?

• A. Organization Management
• B. Impoverished Management
• C. Country Club Management
• D. Team Management

Correct Answer: C. Country Club Management

Country club management style puts concern for the staff as the number one priority at the expense of the delivery of services. He/she runs the department just like a country club where everyone is happy including the manager. This leadership style assumes that if people are happy in their job, they will naturally work harder. 

• Option A: Organization management binds the employees together and gives them a sense of loyalty towards the organization. Organization management enables the optimum use of resources through meticulous planning and control at the workplace. Organization management gives a sense of direction to the employees. The individuals are well aware of their roles and responsibilities and know what they are supposed to do in the organization.
• Option B: The impoverished leader has the least concern for people and for production. This leader has no system of getting work done, nor is the work environment satisfying or motivating for employees. This leader’s low interest in the work and the work environment results in disorganized work, dissatisfied employees, and a lack of harmony.
• Option D: Team management is the ability of an individual or an organization to administer and coordinate a group of individuals to perform a task. Team management involves teamwork, communication, objective setting, and performance appraisals.

-Question-01-002

Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of:

• A. Transformational leader
• B. Transactional leader
• C. Servant leader
• D. Charismatic leader

Correct Answer: C. Servant leader

Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to fully understand others, and not being judgmental. Servant leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the goal of the leader is to serve. A servant leader shares power, puts the needs of the employees first and helps people develop and perform as highly as possible. Servant leadership inverts the norm, which puts the customer service associates as the main priority.

• Option A: Transformational leadership is a leadership style that can inspire positive changes in those who follow. Transformational leaders are generally energetic, enthusiastic, and passionate. Not only are these leaders concerned and involved in the process; they are also focused on helping every member of the group succeed as well.
• Option B: A transactional leader is someone who values order and structure. They are likely to command military operations, manage large corporations, or lead international projects that require rules and regulations to complete objectives on time or move people and supplies in an organized way. Transactional leaders are not a good fit for places where creativity and innovative ideas are valued.
• Option D: The charismatic leadership style relies on the charm and persuasiveness of the leader. Charismatic leaders are driven by their convictions and commitment to their cause. Charismatic leaders also are sometimes called transformational leaders because they share multiple similarities. Their main difference is focus and audience. Charismatic leaders often try to make the status quo better, while transformational leaders focus on transforming organizations into the leader’s vision.

-Question-01-003

On the other hand, Ms. Caputo notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has a charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this style?

• A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers get attracted to him and regard him with reverence.
• B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results.
• C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership.
• D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.

Correct Answer: A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted to him and regards him with reverence. 

Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in their presence. They feel that they are in good hands whenever the leader is around. The charismatic leadership style relies on the charm and persuasiveness of the leader. Charismatic leaders are driven by their convictions and commitment to their cause.

• Option B: The impoverished leader has the least concern for people and for production. This leader has no system of getting work done, nor is the work environment satisfying or motivating for employees. This leader’s low interest in the work and the work environment results in disorganized work, dissatisfied employees, and a lack of harmony.
• Option C: In the transformational leadership style, the leader inspires his or her followers with a vision and then encourages and empowers them to achieve it. The leader also serves as a role model for the vision.
• Option D: With situational leadership, it is up to the leader to change his style, not the follower to adapt to the leader’s style. In situational leadership, the style may change continually to meet the needs of others in the organization based on the situation.

-Question-01-004

Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Caputo about leadership characteristics is true?

• A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job done.
• B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.
• C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
• D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in a managerial role.

Correct Answer: C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.

It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person would make him become a good manager. It can only predict a manager’s potential of becoming a good one. Successful leaders tend to have certain traits. Two keys areas of personal growth and development are fundamental to leadership success: self-confidence and a positive attitude.

• Option A: A true leader communicates with their team to keep them updated and show that they are valued. They will be the ones intentionally learning more, challenging themselves and others, improving the workplace environment and work ethics, and encouraging teams to achieve goals. 
• Option B: True leaders seek to improve themselves and their work ethics. They accept challenges as opportunities to grow, and they’re eager to learn new skills. Leaders are responsible for ensuring the organization gets value from the time allocated to accomplish business tasks.
• Option D: Assessment tools vary in what they examine and the depth of the questions. There are personality, leadership skills, and behavioral assessments. Before choosing a tool, one should make sure that it will test for the specific skills one wants in a leader. 

-Question-01-005

She reads about Path-Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory?

• A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations.
• B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice.
• C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
• D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non-performance.

Correct Answer: A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations 

The path-Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the same. The path-goal theory states that a leader’s behavior is contingent on the satisfaction, motivation, and performance of their employees. The manager’s job is viewed as guiding workers to choose the best paths to reach both their goals as well as the corporation’s goals.

• Option B: It is the leader’s job to assist followers in attaining goals and to provide the direction and support needed to ensure that their goals are compatible with the organization’s goals. Path–goal theory assumes that leaders are flexible and that they can change their style, as situations require.
• Option C: The fourth theory is the transformational leadership theory, which suggests that good leaders are those able to stimulate, transform, and use the values, beliefs, and needs of their followers to accomplish tasks.
• Option D: Providing employees with the necessary tools to resolve issues in the workplace will ensure organizational success is not hindered. Effective leadership not only guides employees in the right direction towards their goals but also requires leaders to assist in the identification of goals and objectives from the get-go.

-Question-01-006

One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the following theories?

• A. Trait
• B. Charismatic
• C. Great Man
• D. Situational

Correct Answer: C. Great Man

Leaders become leaders because of their birthright. This is also called Genetic theory or the Aristotelian theory. This quote sums up the basic tenet of the Great Man theory of leadership, which suggests that the capacity for leadership is innate. According to this theory, you’re either a natural-born leader or you’re not. The term “Great Man” was used because, at the time, ​leadership was thought of primarily as a male quality, especially in terms of military leadership.

• Option A: According to trait leadership theory, effective leaders have in common a pattern of personal characteristics that support their ability to mobilize others toward a shared vision. These traits include dimensions of personality and motives, sets of skills and capabilities, and behavior in social relationships.
• Option B: Charismatic leadership is a trait-based leadership theory where the leaders act as visionary driven by their convictions and motivate their followers to work towards a common vision using their charm and persuasiveness. Leaders are able to cultivate a profound sense of trust with the group of followers.
• Option D: The situational theory of leadership refers to those leaders who adopt different leadership styles according to the situation and the development level of their team members. It is an effective way of leadership because it adapts to the team’s needs and sets a beneficial balance for the whole organization.

-Question-01-007

She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective depends on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts, and are matured, individuals?

• A. Democratic
• B. Authoritarian
• C. Laissez-faire
• D. Bureaucratic

Correct Answer: C. Laissez faire

Laissez-faire leadership is preferred when the followers know what to do and are experts in the field. This leadership style is relationship-oriented rather than task-centered. This kind of leadership is very hands-off—managers trust their employees and are confident in their abilities. They give guidance and take responsibility where needed, but this leadership style means that subordinates and team members have the real lead.

• Option A: Democratic leadership, also known as participative leadership or shared leadership, is a type of leadership style in which members of the group take a more participative role in the decision-making process. This type of leadership can apply to any organization, from private businesses to schools to the government.
• Option B: Authoritarian leadership, also known as autocratic leadership, is a management style in which an individual has total decision-making power and absolute control over his subordinates. Leaders make decisions with little or no participation or creative input from their followers or team members.
• Option D: Bureaucratic leadership refers to organizational leadership through a highly formalized set of processes, procedures, and structures. Here, rules, policies, and hierarchies form a clear set of expectations as well as an explicit chain of command.

-Question-01-008

She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership as a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of leadership?

• A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leader’s personality and the specific situation.
• B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled.
• C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results.
• D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.

Correct Answer: D. Leadership is shared at the point of care. 

Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the authority, responsibility, and accountability for their own practice. Shared leadership is the practice of governing a school by expanding the number of people involved in making important decisions related to the school’s organization, operation, and academics. In practice, shared leadership may be defined differently from school to school, and it may take a wide variety of forms.

• Option A: The situational theory of leadership refers to those leaders who adopt different leadership styles according to the situation and the development level of their team members. It is an effective way of leadership because it adapts to the team’s needs and sets a beneficial balance for the whole organization.
• Option B: The laissez-faire leadership style is at the opposite end of the autocratic style. Of all the leadership styles, this one involves the least amount of oversight. While it’s beneficial to give people opportunities to spread their wings, with a total lack of direction, people may unwittingly drift in the wrong direction—away from the critical goals of the organization.
• Option C: In the transformational leadership style, the leader inspires his or her followers with a vision and then encourages and empowers them to achieve it. The leader also serves as a role model for the vision.

-Question-01-009

Ms. Caputo learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does not characterize a transactional leader?

• A. Focuses on management tasks.
• B. Is a caretaker.
• C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals.
• D. Inspires others with vision.

Correct Answer: D. Inspires others with vision. 

Inspiring others with a vision is characteristic of a transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day operations of the department/unit. Transactional leadership depends on self-motivated people who work well in a structured, directed environment. By contrast, transformational leadership seeks to motivate and inspire workers, choosing to influence rather than direct others.

• Option A: A transactional leader is someone who values order and structure. They are likely to command military operations, manage large corporations, or lead international projects that require rules and regulations to complete objectives on time or move people and supplies in an organized way.
• Option B: Transactional leadership focuses on results, conforms to the existing structure of an organization, and measures success according to that organization’s system of rewards and penalties. Transactional leaders have formal authority and positions of responsibility in an organization.
• Option C: This type of leader sets the criteria for their workers according to previously defined requirements. Performance reviews are the most common way to judge employee performance. Transactional, or managerial, leaders work best with employees who know their jobs and are motivated by the reward-penalty system. The status quo of an organization is maintained through transactional leadership.

-Question-01-010

She finds out that some managers have a benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?

• A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
• B. Gives economic or ego awards.
• C. Communicates downward to the staff.
• D. Allows decision-making among subordinates.

Correct Answer: A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates. 

Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers. In Benevolent-Autocratic Leadership Style, the manager has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates, motivates with rewards and some punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits some ideas and opinions from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close policy control.

• Option B: The benevolent authoritative system uses less control over employees than the exploitative authoritative system, however, this system motivates employees through potential punishment and rewards.
• Option C: The responsibility lies at the managerial levels but not at the lower levels of the organizational hierarchy. The superior has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates (master-servant relationship). 
• Option D: In participative leadership, the responsibility for achieving the organizational goals is widespread throughout the organizational hierarchy. There is a high level of confidence that the superior has in his subordinates. There is a high level of teamwork, communication, and participation.

-Question-01-011

Henry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. The patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following actions is a priority for Henry?

• A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
• B. Seek help from her manager.
• C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
• D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.

Correct Answer: A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up on the agenda. 

This will allow for the participation of every staff in the unit. If they contribute to the solutions of the problem, they will own the solutions; hence the chance for compliance would be greater. It’s one thing to articulate the change required and entirely another to conduct a critical review against organizational objectives and performance goals to ensure the change will carry the unit in the right direction strategically, financially, and ethically.

• Option B: Determine the most effective means of communication for the group or individual that will bring them on board. The communication strategy should include a timeline for how the change will be incrementally communicated, key messages, and the communication channels and mediums that is planned to use.
• Option C: Providing a support structure is essential to assist employees to emotionally and practically adjust to the change and to build the proficiency of behaviors and technical skills needed to achieve desired results. 
• Option D: Review the effect on the unit and how it cascades through the organizational structure to the individual. This information will start to form the blueprint for where training and support are needed the most to mitigate the impacts.

-Question-01-012

He knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of the following is not an external force?

• A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption.
• B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages.
• C. Low morale of staff in his unit.
• D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards.

Correct Answer: C. Low morale of staff in his unit.

Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only the unit. External forces are those changes that are part of an organization’s general and business environment. All the rest of the options emanate from the top executive or from outside the institution.

• Option A: During the 2008 recession, consumers lost their jobs and cut back on their spending. These economic downturns had a major impact on businesses. Banks failed. General Motors and Chrysler filed for bankruptcy. Survival meant adapting to change.
• Option B: Government restrictions often force change onto organizations. This can be something as simple as a change in the minimum wage for employees, or as complex as rules and restrictions governing fair competition in business.
• Option D: For instance, when the Affordable Health Care Act was put into place, businesses had to change their operations and put steps into place to confirm that all employees had healthcare coverage to comply with the new law.

-Question-01-013

After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down possible strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the following strategies is referred to this?

• A. Collaboration
• B. Majority rule
• C. Dominance
• D. Compromise

Correct Answer: B. Majority rule

The majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest vote wins. 1/2 + 1 is a majority. The majority rule is a decision rule that selects alternatives that have a majority, that is, more than half the votes. It is the binary decision rule used most often in influential decision-making bodies, including all the legislatures of democratic nations.

• Option A: Collaboration in the workplace takes into account employees’ ideas, skills, experiences, and opinions. When individuals work together openly, processes and goals become more aligned, leading the group towards a higher success rate of achieving a common goal.
• Option C: Accordingly, a strategy is dominant if it leads a player to better outcomes than alternative strategies (i.e., it dominates the alternative strategies). Conversely, a strategy is dominated if it leads a player to worse outcomes than alternative strategies.
• Option D: A person who typically uses a compromising conflict style attempts to balance the needs of both or all sides in a conflict by encouraging everyone to give in on at least some points. This style of conflict can be more time-consuming and require more “people skills” than other conflict resolution techniques.

-Question-01-014

One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using, which is described as a:

• A. Job description
• B. System used to deliver care
• C. Manual of procedure
• D. Rules to be followed

Correct Answer: B. System used to deliver care

A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed as methods of patient assignment; in the early 80’s it was called modalities of patient care then patterns of nursing care in the ’90s until recently authors called it nursing care systems. Ideally, nursing care delivery models match the number and type of caregivers to patient care needs determine who is going to perform what tasks, who is responsible, and who makes decisions and detail assignments, responsibilities, and authority to accomplish patient care.

• Option A: A job description or JD lists the main features of a specific job. The description typically includes the person’s main duties, responsibilities, and working conditions. It also includes the job title and to whom the person holding that job has to report.
• Option C: A procedure manual contains the institution’s best practices that define the systematic approach to implementing policy expectations, plans, and work routines — also known as procedures.
• Option D: Rules can be described as the guidelines or instructions for doing something correctly. these are the principles that govern the conduct or behavior of a person in an organization or country. On the other hand, regulations refer to the directives or statutes enforced by law, in a particular country.

-Question-01-015

Which of the following is true about functional nursing?

• A. Concentrates on tasks and activities.
• B. Emphasizes the use of group collaboration.
• C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio.
• D. Provides continuous, coordinated, and comprehensive nursing services.

Correct Answer: A. Concentrates on tasks and activities.

Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the holistic care of the patients. Functional nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead of one nurse performing many functions, several nurses are given one or two assignments. Functional nursing was designed around an efficacy model that seeks to get many tasks accomplished in a short period of time.

• Option B: Team nursing involves the use of a team leader and team members to provide various aspects of nursing care to a group of patients. In team nursing, medications might be given by one nurse while baths and physical care are given by a nursing assistant under the supervision of a nurse team leader. 
• Option C: Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is identified as the point of contact and primary caregiver for a patient during his or her particular hospital stay or another episode of care.
• Option D: Primary care nursing includes a set of attributes, as in the 1978 IOM definition—care that is accessible, comprehensive, coordinated, continuous, and accountable—or as defined by Starfield (1992)—care that is characterized by first contact, accessibility, longitudinally, and comprehensiveness

-Question-01-016

Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an exception?

• A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.
• B. Great control of work activities.
• C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.
• D. Workers feel secure in a dependent role.

Correct Answer: A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized. 

When the functional method is used, the psychological and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the patients are regarded as ‘tasks to be done ‘. Functional nursing was designed around an efficacy model that seeks to get many tasks accomplished in a short period of time.

• Option B: Modular Nursing is a modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s geographic location for staff assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called districts or pods.
• The same team of caregivers is assigned consistently to the same geographic location. Each location, or module, has an RN assigned as the team leader, and the other team members may include LVNs/LPNs and Unlicensed Assistant Personnel.
• Option C: Functional nursing revolves around team ethics, and it produces a catalog of processes, which are undertaken by different individuals to ensure efficient patient care delivery. As well as taking advantage of the skills of nurses at different stages of their careers, this model can also save healthcare providers and facilities money by increasing efficiency and productivity.
• Option D: Team nursing is a patient care delivery model, which was established in the 1950s. For healthcare providers, the team nursing model improves efficiency and provides valuable training opportunities for those keen to progress during the early stages of their careers.

-Question-01-017

He raised the issue of giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for setting priority?

• A. Assessing nursing needs and problems.
• B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met.
• C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care.
• D. Assigning a safe nurse: patient ratio.

Correct Answer: A. Assessing nursing needs and problems. 

This option follows the framework of the nursing process and at the same time applies the management process of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling. At the basic level, management is a regimen that comprises five standard functions, namely, planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. These functions are part of a body of practices and theories that educate on becoming an efficient manager.

• Option B: Leading is a function that involves stating a vision, influencing, persuading, motivating, and inspiring employees. An efficient and effective management process aligns individual interests with the organization’s goals and objectives as a whole.
• Option C: Evaluate the achievement of goals, improvement in performance, and the ability to take action. Put processes in place to help you establish standards, so you can measure, compare, and make decisions.
• Option D: Enlisting and recruiting employees for positions within the various teams and departments in an organized manner. The staffing process helps in getting the right people for the right job at right time. The function of staffing helps the management to decide the number of employees needed for the organization and with what qualifications and experience.

-Question-01-018

Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s priority needs are met?

• A. Checking with the relative of the patient.
• B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient.
• C. Consulting with the physician.
• D. Coordinating with other members of the team.

Correct Answer: B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient. 

The best source of information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a nursing care plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting his needs effectively. It is about understanding each patient’s health outcome goals and health care preferences and ensuring that the care provided is in line with those goals.

• Option A: Checking with the relative of the patient would not yield actual needs for the patient. Asking the patient himself would be an assurance that what he deems as the priority would be addressed.
• Option C: Consulting or collaborating with the physician should occur after the implementation of independent nursing interventions. A nursing care plan includes independent, dependent, and collaborative nursing interventions specific to every client’s needs.
• Option D: Collaborating may come after consultation with a physician. Collaboration may include teams from the laboratory services, radiological department, and other departments involved in the care of the patient.

-Question-01-019

When Henry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to assess the priority of care for a group of patients, which of the following should be a priority?

• A. Each patient is listed on the worksheet.
• B. Patients who need the least care.
• C. Medications and treatments required for all patients.
• D. Patients who need the most care.

Correct Answer: D. Patients who need the most care.

In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who need the most care should be the number-one priority to ensure that their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of other patients who need less care can be attended to later or even delegated to assistive personnel according to rules on delegation. The ability to prioritize and manage time is vital for any successful nurse, whether a novice or expert.

• Option A: Clinical judgment and prioritization of patient care are built on the nursing process. Nurses learn the steps of the nursing process in their foundational nursing course and utilize it throughout their academic and clinical careers to direct patient care and determine priorities.
• Option B: In unfamiliar situations, patient prioritization should be approached as a structured process, highlighting risk factors that may contribute to a decline in the patient’s condition and potential interventions that can reduce the risk of adverse outcomes (Jessee, 2019).
• Option C: Seasoned nurses are able to pull from their depth of knowledge and experience that allows them to act deductively and intuitively when prioritizing patient care.

-Question-01-020

He is hopeful that his unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months. Which of the following actions of Henry demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change?

• A. Wonders why things are not what they used to be.
• B. Finds solutions to the problems.
• C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.
• D. Selects the best change strategy.

Correct Answer: C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.

Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is expected to happen during the third stage of change when the change agent incorporates the selected solutions into his system and begins to create a change. In the third and final stage, freezing, the new mindset of the change begins to become the standard, and people’s comfort levels return to normal. 

• Option A: The first stage (unfreezing) involves overcoming inertia and dismantling the existing mindset. It involves getting over the initial defense mechanisms that people exhibit to avoid making a change. People eventually realize that change is necessary and urgent, and this realization allows them to move on to the next stage.
• Option B: In the second stage, the actual change occurs. During this stage, an organization’s leaders need to focus on clearly communicating to employees the reasons for change and the steps needed to achieve it.
• Option D: The second stage is typically a period of confusion and transition in which people are unsure about the change and what may happen in the future. People are aware that the old ways are being challenged, but they do not yet have a clear picture as to what these ways will be replaced with.

-Question-01-021

Joey is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Holy Spirit Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling a planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure effective and efficient management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning workshop, which of the following is not a characteristic of this activity?

• A. Long-term goal-setting.
• B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future.
• C. Focuses on routine tasks.
• D. Determines directions of the organization.

Correct Answer: C. Focuses on routine tasks 

Focusing on routine tasks is a characteristic of operational planning. Strategic planning is an organizational management activity that is used to set priorities, focus energy and resources, strengthen operations, ensure that employees and other stakeholders are working toward common goals, establish agreement around intended outcomes/results, and assess and adjust the organization’s direction in response to a changing environment.

• Option A: Long-term planning is about setting a process by which a particular strategic plan will be achieved. This process focuses on activities that start now and continue well into the future.
• Option B: Effective strategic planning articulates not only where an organization is going and the actions needed to make progress, but also how it will know if it is successful. A strategic plan is a document used to communicate with the organization the organization’s goals, the actions needed to achieve those goals, and all of the other critical elements developed during the planning exercise.
• Option D: Strategic planning is a disciplined effort that produces fundamental decisions and actions that shape and guide what an organization is, who it serves, what it does, and why it does it, with a focus on the future.

-Question-01-022

Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?

• A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five years.
• B. The officers and staff of The Holy Spirit Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person.
• C. All the nurses shall undergo a continuing competency training program.
• D. The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment.

Correct Answer: A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five years 

A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time. A vision statement looks forward and creates a mental image of the ideal state that the organization wishes to achieve. It is inspirational and aspirational and should challenge employees.

• Option B: In a conventional sense, company philosophy stands for the basic beliefs that people in the business are expected to hold and be guided by – informal unwritten guidelines on how people should perform and conduct themselves.
• Option C: The main difference between objectives and goals is that objectives are precise actions or measurable steps individuals and groups take to move closer to the goal. They are specific targets that typically have a time-bound schedule or timeline for completion.
• Option D: Goals define the general intentions and ambitions of the business but can be difficult to measure. Setting goals is an important step of business planning, as a well-defined broad primary outcome will have an impact on areas including mission statement, financial objectives, corporate culture, and marketing strategy.

-Question-01-023

The statement, “The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment” refers to which of the following?

• A. Vision
• B. Goal
• C. Philosophy
• D. Mission

Correct Answer: B. Goal 

Goals define the general intentions and ambitions of the business but can be difficult to measure. Setting goals is an important step of business planning, as a well-defined broad primary outcome will have an impact on areas including mission statement, financial objectives, corporate culture, and marketing strategy.

• Option A: A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time. A vision statement looks forward and creates a mental image of the ideal state that the organization wishes to achieve. It is inspirational and aspirational and should challenge employees.
• Option C: In a conventional sense, company philosophy stands for the basic beliefs that people in the business are expected to hold and be guided by – informal unwritten guidelines on how people should perform and conduct themselves.
• Option D: A mission statement is a concise explanation of the organization’s reason for existence. It describes the organization’s purpose and its overall intention. The mission statement supports the vision and serves to communicate purpose and direction to employees, customers, vendors, and other stakeholders.

-Question-01-024

Joey plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this organizational relationship?

• A. Box
• B. Solid line
• C. Broken line
• D. Dotted line

Correct Answer: C. Broken line 

This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a broken line in the organizational structure. The broken line’s meaning in an organizational chart is a less formal reporting relationship. The person at the end of that line isn’t the immediate and permanent manager, but someone else. In theory, it means that these reporting relationships are secondary, but in practice, that’s not always the case.

• Option A: The boxes on an organizational chart might represent individual employees, ad-hoc working groups, or formal teams or departments. Employee names and titles and/or job positions are generally depicted in boxes or circles with lines linking them to other employees and departments.
• Option B: The lines always represent the reporting path for anyone in a given box. In a simple hierarchy, the lines run vertically from employees to managers and ultimately the CEO or proprietor.
• Option D: For example, the department or a member might be assigned to do some work for a team or a manager in some other part of the company. This member will still have a solid line connecting to the full-time manager, but now he’ll also have a dotted line connecting to whoever’s in charge of the other project. This particular relationship is often referred to as “dotted line reporting.”

-Question-01-025

He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer to?

• A. Scalar chain
• B. Discipline
• C. Unity of command
• D. Order

Correct Answer: C. Unity of command

Henry Fayol, a famous industrialist of France, has described fourteen principles of management in his book General and Industrial Management. According to the principle of unity of command, an individual employee should receive orders from only one superior at a time and that employee should be answerable only to that superior. If there are many superiors giving orders to the same employee, he will not be able to decide as to which order is to be given priority. He thus finds himself in a confusing situation.

• Option A: Scalar chain is the formal line of authority that moves from highest to lowest rank in a straight line. This chain specifies the route through which the information is to be communicated to the desired location/person.
• Option B: Discipline is essential for any successful work performance. Fayol considers discipline to mean obedience, respect for authority, and observance of established rules. Discipline can be established by providing good supervision at all levels, clearly explaining the rules, and implementing a system of reward and punishment. A manager can present a good example to his subordinates by disciplining himself.
• Option D: According to the principle of order, the right person should be placed at the right job and the right thing should be placed at the right place. According to Fayol, every enterprise should have two different orders-Material Order for Physical Resources and Social Order for Human Resources.

-Question-01-026

Joey orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationships throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?

• A. Span of control
• B. Hierarchy
• C. Esprit de’ corps
• D. Unity of direction

Correct Answer: B. Hierarch

Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal line of authority in an organizational structure. More bureaucratic and structured in nature, a hierarchical organization generally follows a chain and command style of authority with employees reporting to a manager above them. Slow to change, and the most traditional form of org design, this structure is commonly found supporting growth through direct reporting to a manager with formal policies and procedures.

• Option A: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates under a manager’s direct control. As an example, a manager with five direct reports has a span of control of five. The span of control is a good metric to assess the efficiency of an organization, as long as it looked at in the context of the company’s organizational structure.
• Option C: Esprit de corps means managers should create and foster among their employees the morale, common spirit, sense of identification, feeling of pride, loyalty, devotion, honor, solidarity, unity, and cohesiveness with respect to their organization or organizational department.
• Option D: In the unity of direction, whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

-Question-01-027

He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the program. Which of the following principles refers to this?

• A. Span of control
• B. Unity of direction
• C. Unity of command
• D. Command responsibility

Correct Answer: B. Unity of direction 

Unity of direction means having one goal or one objective for the team to pursue; hence all members of the organization should put their efforts together towards the attainment of their common goal or objective. Whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

• Option A: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates under a manager’s direct control. As an example, a manager with five direct reports has a span of control of five. The span of control is a good metric to assess the efficiency of an organization, as long as it looked at in the context of the company’s organizational structure.
• Option C: Unity of command an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
• Option D: Command responsibility is an omission mode of individual criminal liability: the superior is responsible for crimes committed by his subordinates and for failing to prevent or punish (as opposed to crimes he ordered).

-Question-01-028

Joey stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’ among the members of the unit. Which of the following remarks of the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out?

• A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another.”
• B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius and not from other managers.”
• C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.”
• D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all our patients.”

Correct Answer: A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another.”

Esprit de corps means managers should create and foster among their employees the morale, common spirit, sense of identification, feeling of pride, loyalty, devotion, honor, solidarity, unity, and cohesiveness with respect to their organization or organizational department.

• Option B: In the principle of unity of command, an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
• Option C: A company should maintain a well-defined work order to have a favorable work culture. A positive atmosphere in the workplace will boost more positive productivity.
• Option D: In the principle of unity of direction, whoever is engaged in the same activity should have a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.

-Question-01-029

He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal?

• A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate.
• B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications.
• C. Establish rapport with patients.
• D. Reduce response time to two minutes.

Correct Answer: A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate.

A goal is a desired result towards which efforts are directed. A goal is a short statement of the desired outcome to be accomplished over a long time frame, usually three to five years. It is a broad statement that focuses on the desired results and does not describe the methods used to get the intended outcome.

• Option B: Objectives are specific, actionable targets that need to be achieved within a smaller time frame, such as a year or less, to reach a certain goal. Objectives describe the actions or activities involved in achieving a goal.
• Option C: Goals are the outcomes you intend to achieve, whereas objectives are the specific actions and measurable steps that you need to take to achieve a goal. Goals and objectives work in tandem to achieve success.
• Option D: Goals are general statements of what is to be achieved. They do not specify the tasks that need to be performed to accomplish them. Objectives, on the other hand, are specific actions one takes within a certain timeframe.

-Question-01-030

He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of the department. Which of the following terms refer to this?

• A. Organizational chart
• B. Cultural network
• C. Organizational structure
• D. Organizational culture

Correct Answer: D. Organizational culture 

Organizational culture refers to the way the members of the organization think together and do things around them together. It’s their way of life in that organization. An organization’s culture defines the proper way to behave within the organization. This culture consists of shared beliefs and values established by leaders and then communicated and reinforced through various methods, ultimately shaping employee perceptions, behaviors, and understanding.

• Option A: An organizational chart is a diagram that visually conveys a company’s internal structure by detailing the roles, responsibilities, and relationships between individuals within an entity. Organizational charts are alternatively referred to as “org charts” or “organization charts.”
• Option B: A cultural network hierarchy is presented which classifies these tools according to the CEO′s personal involvement with each element. Guidelines are presented for using the tools of cultural communication to change or maintain the culture at both the managerial level and the operational level of the organization.
• Option C: An organizational structure is a system that outlines how certain activities are directed in order to achieve the goals of an organization. These activities can include rules, roles, and responsibilities. The organizational structure also determines how information flows between levels within the company.

-Question-01-031

He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?

• A. Proactive and caring with one another
• B. Competitive and perfectionist
• C. Powerful and oppositional
• D. Obedient and uncomplaining

Correct Answer: A. Proactive and caring with one another

Without a positive corporate culture, many employees will struggle to find the real value in their work, and this leads to a variety of negative consequences for the bottom line. Employers who invest in the well-being of their employees will be rewarded with happy, dedicated employees

• Option B: A positive culture gives an organization a competitive advantage. People want to work for companies with a good reputation from previous and current employees. A company with a positive culture will attract the type of talent that is willing to make their next workplace a home, rather than just a stepping-stone.
• Option C: Maintaining positive company culture is a guaranteed way to boost employee morale. Employees will naturally feel happier and enjoy their work more when they work in a positive environment.
• Option D: Employees are much more likely to come together as a team at companies with a strong culture. A positive culture facilitates social interaction, teamwork, and open communication. This collaboration can lead to some amazing results.

-Question-01-032

Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, a span of control, and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?

• A. Organizational structure
• B. Policy
• C. Job description
• D. Manual of procedures

Correct Answer: A. Organizational structure 

Organizational structure provides information on the channel of authority, (i.e., who reports to whom and with what authority) the number of people who directly report to the various levels of hierarchy, and the lines of communication whether line or staff.

• Option B: Policy is a law, regulation, procedure, administrative action, incentive, or voluntary practice of governments and other institutions. Policy decisions are frequently reflected in resource allocations. Health can be influenced by policies in many different sectors.
• Option C: Job description is a broad, general, and written statement of a specific job, based on the findings of a job analysis. It generally includes duties, purpose, responsibilities, scope, and working conditions of a job along with the job’s title, and the name or designation of the person to whom the employee reports.
• Option D: A procedures manual contains the policies, guidelines, and processes for the whole organization. It exists to help employees do their jobs in an approved and consistent manner.

-Question-01-033

Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of organizational structure is this?

• A. Formal
• B. Informal
• C. Staff
• D. Line

Correct Answer: B. Informal

This is usually not published and oftentimes concealed. The informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together in practice. It is the aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms, and personal/professional connections through which work gets done and relationships are built among people. It consists of a dynamic set of personal relationships, social networks, communities of common interest, and emotional sources of motivation. 

• Option A: The formal structure of a group or organization includes a fixed set of rules of procedures and structures, usually set out in writing, with a language of rules that ostensibly leave little discretion for interpretation. In some societies and organizations, such rules may be strictly followed; in others, they may be little more than an empty formalism.
• Option C: In the staff organization structure, the employees follow the directives of the managers. The line group as a whole is seen as a function that is essential to the business. Staff positions are those that indirectly support line functions in the organizations. Like line positions, staff positions also consist of managers and employees.
• Option D: Line organization structure is the oldest and simplest form of organization. In these organizations, a supervisor exercises direct supervision over a subordinate. Also, authority flows from the top-most person in the organization to the person in the lowest rung.

-Question-01-034

She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is not compatible with this type of model?

• A. Flat organization
• B. Participatory approach
• C. Shared governance
• D. Tall organization

Correct Answer: D. Tall organization 

Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations where decision-making is centered on one authority level. A tall organizational structure means that management is broken down into several layers, with executives on top and normal employees on the bottom. In a tall organization, there will be a large number of managers, and each manager will usually be responsible for a small group of employees.

• Option A: Flat organizations have a structure with few levels of middle management between leadership and employees—or, in some cases, no middle management at all. Small organizations and startups often have flat structures because they have fewer employees and less of a need for hierarchical management.
• Option B: A participatory approach means that the person in charge of solving a problem or designing an innovation involves people who are directly concerned by the result of his or their work. Problem solving and innovation are thus conducted directly with regards to the situation to be transformed.
• Option C: In its simplest form, shared governance is shared decision-making based on the principles of partnership, equity, accountability, and ownership at the point of service. Shared governance increases nurse engagement, improves patient outcomes and allows hospital administrators to optimize efficiency, increase nurse retention and promote quality care, a study in The Journal of Nursing Administration found.

-Question-01-035

Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements is true? Select all that apply.

• A. Highly cost-effective
• B. Makes management easier
• C. Reflects the interest of the worker
• D. Allows quick decisions or actions.

Correct Answer: A & B 

Centralized organizations need only a few managers hence they are less expensive and easier to manage. In a centralized organization, the decision-making powers are retained in the head office, and all other offices receive commands from the main office. The executives and specialists who make critical decisions are based in the head office.

• Option B: A centralized organization benefits from a clear chain of command because every person within the organization knows who to report to. Junior employees know who to approach whenever they have concerns about the organization.
• Option C: When an organization follows a centralized management structure, it can focus on the fulfillment of its vision with ease. There are clear lines of communication and the senior executive can communicate the organization’s vision to employees and guide them toward the achievement of the vision.
• Option D: In a centralized organization, decisions are made by a small group of people and then communicated to the lower-level managers. The involvement of only a few people makes the decision-making process more efficient since they can discuss the details of each decision in one meeting. 

-Question-01-036

Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is best defined as:

• A. Having a responsibility to direct others.
• B. Being accountable to the organization.
• C. Having a legitimate right to act.
• D. Telling others what to do.

Correct Answer: C. Having legitimate right to act. 

Authority is a legitimate or official right to give the command. This is an officially sanctioned responsibility. Managers must possess the authority to give orders, and recognize that with authority comes responsibility. As well as rank, Fayol argues that a manager’s intelligence, experience, and values should command respect.

• Option A: In order to get things done in an organization, management has the authority to give orders to the employees. Of course with this authority comes responsibility. According to Henri Fayol, the accompanying power or authority gives the management the right to give orders to the subordinates.
• Option B: The responsibility can be traced back from performance and it is, therefore, necessary to make agreements about this. In other words, authority and responsibility go together and they are two sides of the same coin.
• Option D: The right to give orders should not be considered without reference to responsibility. If the authority is more than responsibility then chances are that a manager may misuse it. If responsibility is more than authority then he may feel frustrated.

-Question-01-037

Regardless of the size of a workgroup, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes is not included?

• A. Meet the needs of patients.
• B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed.
• C. Cover all time periods adequately.
• D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.

Correct Answer: B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed. 

Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose in doing an effective staffing process. This is a function of a staffing coordinator at a centralized model. Staff positions affect customers indirectly, only to the extent that the support they provide helps line employees improve quality and customer satisfaction.

• Option A: Staff structure allows to preserve the principle of one-man management (every worker has only one superior), but at the same time provides greater flexibility in changing operating conditions. It also introduces an element of encouraging cooperation between all members of the organization.
• Option C: Staff structure or linear-staff organizational structure is one of the attempts to solve the problem of linear structure constraints. Manager having too much various tasks is not able to effectively manage its employees.
• Option D: One of the key advantages is that this structure provides line personnel with expertise from staff groups. As a result, the key decision-makers in the organization are well-informed and armed with specialized knowledge.

-Question-01-038

Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?

• A. Written nursing care plan
• B. Holistic approach
• C. Prescribed standards
• D. Staff preferences

Correct Answer: D. Staff preferences 

Staff preferences should be the least priority in formulating objectives of nursing care. Individual preferences should be subordinate to the interest of the patients. Along with clinical guidelines, patient preferences provide direction for selecting treatment options and tailoring interventions. Patient preferences also help inform choice in clinical decisions where science has yet to provide dominant solutions to health care problems.

• Option A: Care plans help nurses focus on patients in a holistic, big-picture way so they can deliver evidence-based, patient-centered care. Care plans also help hospitals ensure continuity of care across nursing shifts, promote interprofessional collaboration by getting everyone on the same page, and meet documentation requirements for insurers and governing bodies.
• Option B: A holistic approach means providing the support that looks at the whole person, not just their mental health needs. The support should also consider their physical, emotional, social, and spiritual wellbeing. A holistic approach focuses on a person’s wellness and not just their illness or condition.
• Option C: Standards of care in nursing are guidelines that provide a foundation as to how a nurse should act, and what they should and should not do in their professional capacity. These policies and procedures are guidelines that all nurses must follow.

-Question-01-039

Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following statements best describes this type of leadership?

• A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
• B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
• C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates.
• D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence.

Correct Answer: A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.

Transformational leadership relies heavily on visioning as the core of leadership. Transformational leadership is a leadership style that can inspire positive changes in those who follow. Transformational leaders are generally energetic, enthusiastic, and passionate. Not only are these leaders concerned and involved in the process; they are also focused on helping every member of the group succeed as well.

• Option B: Servant leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the goal of the leader is to serve. This is different from traditional leadership where the leader’s main focus is the thriving of their company or organizations. Instead of the people working to serve the leader, the leader exists to serve the people.
• Option C: Laissez-faire leadership is fairly self-explanatory. This kind of leadership is very hands-off—managers trust their employees and are confident in their abilities. They give guidance and take responsibility where needed, but this leadership style means that subordinates and team members have the real lead.
• Option D: Charismatic leadership is a trait-based leadership theory where the leaders act as visionary driven by their convictions and motivate their followers to work towards a common vision using their charm and persuasiveness. Leaders are able to cultivate a profound sense of trust with the group of followers.

-Question-01-040

As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the patients as well as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she adopt?

• A. Country club management
• B. Organization man management
• C. Team management
• D. Authority-obedience management

Correct Answer: C. Team management

Team management has a high concern for services and high concern for staff. Team management is the ability of an individual or an organization to administer and coordinate a group of individuals to perform a task. Team management involves teamwork, communication, objective setting, and performance appraisals.

• Option A: The country club leader has the most concern for people. This leader assumes that if employees are happy, they will work hard. This leader’s high interest in the needs and feelings of employees affects productivity. With much of the focus on employee comfort, this leader finds it difficult to punish an employee. As a result, the relationship between employee and leader is very casual, like that of friends.
• Option B: Management is the process of guiding the development, maintenance, and allocation of resources to attain organizational goals. This process is based on four key functional areas of the organization: planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.
• Option D: Authority-obedience management results from such a management style that is task-oriented, or task-motivated. The authority-obedience management style overly emphasizes the value of completing tasks to the extent that it risks human relationships.