Nursing Leadership & Management NCLEX Practice Quiz #2 (40 Questions)

Nursing Leadership & Management NCLEX Practice Quiz #2 (40 Questions)

Question-02-001

Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident, and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take?

A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction.
B. Disregard what she feels and continues to work independently.
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing.
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.

Correct Answer: A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction

This involves a problem-solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the problem. Seek to understand the underlying emotions of the employees in conflict. Employers can manage workplace conflict by creating an organizational culture designed to preclude conflict as much as possible and by dealing promptly and equitably with conflicts that employees cannot resolve among themselves.

Option B: Do not ignore conflict, and do not avoid taking steps to prevent it. Unresolved issues of interpersonal tension and conflict can create emotional stress for employees, politicize the workplace and divert attention from the organization’s mission.
Option C: Before escalating the conflict to the Director of Nursing, the unit manager should first try to de escalate the problem. If a manager has mechanisms in place to resolve conflict at its early stages, employees will generally see their employer as fair in their dealings with them and will likely be more satisfied with their jobs.
Option D: If the manager does not act, conflicts will escalate into larger problems, discrimination and harassment complaints may increase, and the employer’s reputation could be damaged. When employees mistrust management or perceive the organization as acting unfairly, turnover may increase. This can lead to recruiting and training expenses for new hires and the costs attributable to slippage of performance until new employees become fully proficient in their jobs.

Question-02-002

As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict is not true?

A. Can be destructive if the level is too high.
B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.
C. May result in poor performance.
D. May create leaders.

Correct Answer: B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.

Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues in the open and can be solved right away. Likewise, members of the team become more conscientious with their work when they are aware that other members of the team are watching them. What conflicts do is that they encourage debate and competition which is good for almost any environment. Also, it improves team culture and allows people to learn more.

Option A: The most obvious disadvantage of conflict is the toll on emotions. When employees feel they are being bullied, taken advantage of, or facing favoritism, they may begin looking for another job or performing poorly. Conflicts between departments can disrupt production, and result in lost business or customers.
Option C: Unscheduled absences drive up employers’ costs through benefits outlays, the use of replacement workers, higher stress levels among employees, and a decrease in overall employee performance.
Option D: With more workplace conflicts, the team may accomplish its goals in no time. This does sound surprising to most of us but it is very true. Conflicts are a vital part of work culture and they nourish the minds in several ways.

Question-02-003

Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use?

A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction

Correct Answer: C. Avoidance

This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect, the problem remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation. Someone who uses a strategy of “avoiding” mostly tries to ignore or sidestep the conflict, hoping it will resolve itself or dissipate.

Option A: Smoothing is not a conflict resolution strategy. One example is accommodating. Accommodating is a strategy where one party gives in to the wishes or demands of another. They’re being cooperative but not assertive. This may appear to be a gracious way to give in when one figures out s/he has been wrong about an argument.
Option B: The strategy of “compromising” involves finding an acceptable resolution that will partly, but not entirely, satisfy the concerns of all parties involved. The concept is that everyone gives up a little bit of what they want, and no one gets everything they want. The perception of the best outcome when working by compromise is that which “splits the difference.”
Option D: Restriction is not one of the strategies for conflict resolution. Another example is competing. Competing is used by people who go into a conflict planning to win. They’re assertive and not cooperative. This method is characterized by the assumption that one side wins and everyone else lose. It doesn’t allow room for diverse perspectives into a well-informed total picture.

Question-02-004

Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?

A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.
B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention.
C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

Correct Answer: D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burnout. Knowing that someone is ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is enhanced. Even though the entire team may be experiencing burnout, have conversations on an individual basis. Addressing the entire group can be intimidating and make it difficult for members to open up.

Option A: Allowing them to have more flexible schedules can be a huge help. This gives them the time and space to address their personal needs, whether that’s serving as a caregiver, going to doctor’s appointments, or whatever it is they need to address.
Option B: Regardless of the reason, it’s important to speak directly with the team members to understand the burnout’s root cause. This will not only help identify how to best help the team, but it’ll also demonstrate that the manager has noticed they’re not being themselves and want to help them overcome this obstacle.
Option C: It’s easy to approach an employee and assume what the problem is. Try to avoid doing this. Create an open space for team members to confirm what’s actually going on, instead of steering the conversation in a certain direction.

Question-02-005

She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities except:

A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.
B. Using agency standards as a guide.
C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses.
D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Correct Answer: D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Performance appraisal deal with both positive and negative performance; is not meant to be a fault-finding activity. A performance appraisal is a regular review of an employee’s job performance and overall contribution to a company. Also known as an annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal, a performance appraisal evaluates an employee’s skills, achievements, and growth–or lack thereof.

Option A: Performance appraisals provide a way for companies to determine which employees have contributed the most to the company’s growth so companies can reward their top-performing employees accordingly.
Option B: Companies use performance appraisals to determine which employees have contributed the most to the company’s growth, review progress, and reward high-achieving workers.
Option C: Performance appraisals are used to review the job performance of an employee over some period of time. These reviews are used to highlight both strengths and weaknesses in order to improve future performance.

Question-02-006

Which of the following statements is not true about performance appraisal?

A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report.
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Correct Answer: C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.

The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is never the best source. Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel appraisal. The supervisor analyses the factors behind the work performances of employees. Through performance appraisal, the employers can understand and accept the skills of subordinates.

Option A: Performance appraisal serves as a motivation tool. Through evaluating the performance of employees, a person’s efficiency can be determined if the targets are achieved. This very well motivates a person for a better job and helps him to improve his performance in the future.
Option B: Performance appraisals enable superiors to know what their team members are up to, evaluate their performances and also give them correct feedbacks so that they know where they are lacking and work on their shortcomings.
Option D: Performance Appraisal helps the supervisors to chalk out the promotion programs for efficient employees. In this regard, inefficient workers can be dismissed or demoted in case.

Question-02-007

There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is not a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?

A. The staff member is observed in a natural setting.
B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration are allowed.
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
D. The evaluation may provide valid information for the compilation of a formal report.

Correct Answer: C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.

Collecting objective data systems can not be achieved in an informal appraisal. It is focused on what actually happens in the natural work setting. Informal appraisals give an employee a more current, ongoing perspective on performance. It helps avoid delivering positive or negative surprises in a formal review, which is important for internal communication. The manager also has the ability to motivate better performance and stem problems quickly. A drawback of informal evaluations is that the manager doesn’t plan for them as with a formal review.

Option A: Informal appraisals occur when a manager provides significant feedback and direction to an employee outside of a formal review meeting. Consistent, informal feedback is important to build rapport with employees and to coach them in an ongoing manner.
Option B: A contrast to immediate praise is immediate criticism or negative feedback. This approach is applied when you spot an employee making a mistake, making a poor decision, or simply underperforming. Similar to positive feedback, the immediacy of constructive criticism is important. You need to address the undesirable behavior right away so the employee knows the specifics of the incident at the moment.
Option D: A positive version of informal appraisal feedback occurs when a manager notices an employee performing well, overcoming an obstacle, or achieving a goal, and offers praise. The point is to immediately reinforce the desired behavior or achievement so that the employee is compelled to perform in a similar or better way going forward.

Question-02-008

She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate?

A. She asks another nurse to attest to the session as a witness.
B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over.
C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.
D. The session is private between the two members.

Correct Answer: D. The session is private between the two members.

The session is private between the manager and the staff and remains to be so when the two parties do not divulge the information to others. The rating procedure, appraisal form, or any other related information ought to be sent to each and every individual separately. Do not mark a common mail to everyone.

Option A: A small business with few employees may choose to use an informal approach with employees. This entails meeting with each employee every six months or once a year and discussing an individual’s work performance and progress since the last discussion.
Option B: Part of the appraisal system is the actual communication of the performance assessment. While this assessment may be written, it should always be provided verbally as well. This provides an opportunity to answer any questions the employee may have on the assessment, as well as to provide context or further detail for brief assessments.
Option C: The performance of employees, especially in a smaller firm, is an essential factor in any company’s ability to meet its goals. In a one-person business, goal-setting and achieving is a matter of transforming words into action, but moving the business towards its goals in a larger firm means that the employer has to figure out each person’s role in that success, communicate that role to him or her, and reward or correct their performance.

Question-02-009

Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. She is aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through downward and upward channels, and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style of management?

A. Benevolent –authoritative
B. Consultative
C. Exploitive-authoritative
D. Participative

Correct Answer: B. Consultative

A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative manager has complete trust and confidence in the subordinates, always uses the opinions and ideas of subordinates, and communicates in all directions. Consultative leadership is a leadership style that targets team building and uses the skills of others to create plans and make decisions. Leaders consult with their team to obtain their suggestions and opinions to help them make informed and strategic decisions.

Option A: In the benevolent-autocratic leadership style, the manager has condescending confidence and trust in subordinates, motivates with rewards and some punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits some ideas and opinions from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close policy control.
Option C: In the exploitative-authoritative leadership style, the manager has no confidence or trust in subordinates. Subordinates feel no freedom to discuss things about the job with their superiors. In solving job problems, the manager seldom gets the ideas and opinions of subordinates.
Option D: Participative leadership is a style of leadership in which all members of the organization work together to make decisions. Participative leadership is also known as democratic leadership, as everyone is encouraged to participate. The participative leadership decision-making process can take many forms, but the key element is collective input from all members of the organization.

Question-02-010

She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is not included?

A. Level of authority
B. Lines of communication
C. Span of control
D. Unity of direction

Correct Answer: D. Unity of direction

Unity of direction is a management principle, not an element of an organizational structure. The principle of unity of direction implies that there should be ”one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objective”. In other words, each group of activities having the same objectives must have one plan of action and must be under the control of one manager or superior. An organization or group having different plans and more than one head cannot achieve the desired results.

Option A: Distributing authority is another important building block in structuring organizations. Authority in the organization is the right in a position and, through it, the right of the person occupying the position to exercise discretion in making decisions affecting others.
Option B: Organizational structures also rest somewhere on a spectrum of centralization. Generally, more conservative corporate entities adopt a centralized structure. In this design, C-level managers make all the decisions, management designs a plan for execution, and front-line employees carry out that plan.
Option C: An organization’s span of control defines how many employees each manager is responsible for within the company. There is no single type of span of control that’s ideal for all companies or even for all businesses in a specific industry.

Question-02-011

She plans on assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?

A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction

Correct Answer: A. Staffing

Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks and activities to attain the goals of the organization. Staffing is the function by which managers build an organization through the recruitment, selection, development, of individuals as capable employees.

Option B: The scheduling function consists of organizing activities in a specific system imposing some rules to respect. More generally, solving a scheduling problem can be reduced to the organization and the synchronization of a set of activities (jobs or tasks) by exploiting the available capacities (resources).
Option C: Recruitment is the process of attracting, evaluating, and hiring employees for an organization. The recruitment process includes four steps: job analysis, sourcing, screening and selection, and onboarding.
Option D: Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.

Question-02-012

She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for the staff nurse position. Which one is not necessary?

A. Certificate of previous employment
B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
C. Membership to an accredited professional organization
D. Professional identification card

Correct Answer: B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)

Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes but it is required for the nurse’s licensure examination. Related Learning Experience (RLE) is a teaching-learning opportunity designed to advance the competencies of students utilizing methods in various health situations. Related learning experience provides an opportunity for the student-nurses to practice what has been learned in the classroom.

Option A: A certificate of employment, also called an employment certificate, is used to verify the employment history of a former or current employee. If the employee is no longer employed by the employer, the employer usually issues the certificate of employment upon request by the employee. It is usually requested to complete the requirements for employment with a new employer.
Option C: A professional organization, sometimes referred to as a professional association or professional body, exists to advance a particular profession, support the interests of people working in that profession and serve the public good. It facilitates innovation, communication, and connection.
Option D: Professional Identification is a type of social identification and is the sense of oneness individuals have with a profession (e.g. law, medicine) and the degree to which individuals define themselves as professional members.

Question-02-013

Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary requirements?

A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment

Correct Answer: B. Induction

This step in the recruitment process gives time for the staff to submit all the documentary requirements for employment. Induction means the introduction of a new employee to the job and the organization. It is the process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and start work.

Option A: In this stage, new hires are given job- or task-specific orientation, typically by their immediate supervisor. New employees learn details about their specific department or team, including information about breaks, absences, parking facilities, personal phone calls, email and internet policy, as well as the standards of performance for their work.
Option C: Screening of applications can be regarded as an integral part of the recruiting process, though many view it as the first step in the selection process. Even the definition of recruitment excludes screening from its scope.
Option D: Recruitment is a process of finding and attracting the potential resources for filling up vacant positions in an organization. It sources the candidates with the abilities and attitudes, which are required for achieving the objectives of an organization.

Question-02-014

She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involves workers in decision-making. Which form of organizational structure is this?

A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal

Correct Answer: B. Decentralized

Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters pertaining to their practice and communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow. Decentralization is a type of organizational structure in which daily operations and decision-making responsibilities are delegated by top management to middle and lower-level managers.

Option A: Centralized management is the organizational structure where a small handful of individuals make most of the decisions in a company. More centralized management is usually seen in highly competitive industries, where companies specialize in similar products to their competition.
Option C: A matrix organizational structure is a workplace format in which employees report to two or more managers rather than one manager overseeing every aspect of a project. For example, an employee may have a primary manager they report to as well as one or more project managers they work under.
Option D: The informal organization is the interlocking social structure that governs how people work together in practice. It is the aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms, and personal/professional connections through which work gets done and relationships are built among people.

Question-02-015

In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the

A. Leftmost box
B. Middle
C. Rightmost box
D. Bottom

Correct Answer: C. Rightmost box

The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority while the lowest level worker occupies the rightmost box. A horizontal organizational structure has fewer layers, normally two or three. It doesn’t have many chains of command.

Option A: The third layers are team members supervised by the managers or team leaders in the second layer. The horizontal org chart has eliminated many middle management levels, thus can be considered as employee-centered with emphasis on teamwork and collaboration.
Option B: The second layer contains managers or team leaders who report to the business owner. Without going through complicated hierarchies, employees have more contact with managers and even business owners.
Option D: A horizontal organization has few – if any – managers because the focus is on empowering the staff members and removing any barriers between the executive level and the staff level.

Question-02-016

She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?

A. Greater control of activities.
B. Conserves time.
C. Compatible with computerization.
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.

Correct Answer: D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.

Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve decisions by themselves, involve them in decision making; hence they are always given opportunities to interact with one another. Decentralization improves the level of job satisfaction as well as employee morale, especially amongst the lower-level managers.

Option A: Lower-level managers can alter production schedules and work assignments with adequate authority. They can even take disciplinary actions and recommend the promotion of their peers.
Option B: Another important pointer in the advantages and disadvantages of decentralization is that decisions are taken and executed by authorized personnel. This, in turn, results in faster and accurate decisions which are well aware of the real scenario. This, in turn, leads to greater efficiency in supervision. Performance evaluation of each decentralized unit helps in exercising adequate control.
Option C: Under decentralization, every single product division attains sufficient autonomy to exercise its creative flair. In this way, the top-level management can create healthy competition amongst different divisions.

Question-02-017

Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is not done by a primary nurse?

A. Collaborates with the physician.
B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.
C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.
D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment.

Correct Answer: B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.

This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that provides care for a group of patients. Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is identified as the point of contact and primary caregiver for a patient during his or her particular hospital stay or other episodes of care. As envisioned by staff nurses at the University of Minnesota in 1969, the primary care nursing team is composed of that lead nurse, who directly supervises the engagement of a licensed practical nurse and/or nursing assistant in that patient’s care.

Option A: Further, the primary care nurse acts as a care partner, serving as a communications liaison between the patient and his or her doctor and other care team members. (In many facilities and systems, the position of nurse practitioner has been created to fulfill this role.)
Option C: The primary nursing model is hailed by proponents as creating a better bond and trust relationship between patients and caregivers, thanks to that single-source relationship. They say that the patient’s care is elevated by having that single nurse overseeing its delivery and that its structure empowers the nurse to utilize managerial abilities as well as deploy their best bedside care.
Option D: Primary health care (PHC) is a principle-based, comprehensive approach. It focuses on the way services are delivered, from birth to death, across the continuum of care in all settings.

Question-02-018

Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who takes care of patients with the same disease conditions and is located geographically near each other?

A. Case method
B. Modular nursing
C. Nursing case management
D. Team nursing

Correct Answer: B. Modular nursing

Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The difference lies in the fact that the members in modular nursing are paraprofessional workers. Modular Nursing is a modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s geographic location for staff assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called districts or pods.

Option A: In case method, the nurse cares for one patient whom the nurse cares for exclusively. The Case Method evolved into what is now called private duty nursing. It was the first type of nursing care delivery system.
Option C: Nursing case management provides a continuum of health care services for defined groups of patients. Its literature is multidisciplinary, emphasizing clinical specialties, case management methodology, and the health care system. Case management is a care delivery model designed to coordinate and manage patient care across the continuum of health care systems.
Option D: The goal of team nursing is for a team to work democratically. In the ideal team, an RN is assigned as a Team Leader for a group of patients. The Team Leader has a core of staff reporting to her, and together they work to disseminate the care activities.

Question-02-019

St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system?

A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses.
B. Identify the values of the department.
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria.
D. Measure actual performances.

Correct Answer: B. Identify the values of the department

Identify the values of the department will set the guiding principles within which the department will operate its activities. Some control techniques, such as those involving standard hours and costs, budgets, and various financial ratios, have general application in various situations.

Option A: Control techniques should reflect the plans they are designed to follow. Managers need the information that will tell them how the plans for which they are responsible are progressing. An effective control system will disclose where failures are occurring and who is/are responsible for the failures and it will ensure that some corrective action is taken.
Option C: Control systems and information are, of course, intended to help individual managers carry out their function of control. An effective control system must fit in with the organizational culture. If employees have been managed without allowing them any participation in decision-making, the sudden introduction of a permissive control system will hardly succeed.
Option D: As far as possible the information provided by the control system should be objective. If on the other hand, controls are subjective, a manager’s or an executive’s personality may influence judgments of performance and make them less accurate. Thus, the control system should ideally provide objective information to the manager for evaluation and action.

Question-02-020

Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure standard?

A. The patients verbalized satisfaction with the nursing care received.
B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
C. All patients shall have their weights recorded.
D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge.

Correct Answer: B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.

Structure standards include management systems, facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to patients. Rotation of duty is a management system. A nursing care standard is a descriptive statement of desired quality against which to evaluate nursing care. It is a guideline. A guideline is a recommended path to safe-conduct, an aid to professional performance.

Option A: Standards give direction and provide guidelines for the performance of nursing staff. Standards provide a baseline for evaluating the quality of nursing care. Standards statement must be broad enough to apply to a wide variety of settings.
Option C: Standards must be understandable and stated in unambiguous terms. Standards may help to determine the degree to which standards of nursing care maintained and take necessary corrective action in time.
Option D: Standards may help to improve the basis for decision-making and devise an alternative system for delivering nursing care. Standards must be reviewed and revised periodically. Standards may be directed towards ideal (ie, optional) standards or may only specify the minimal care that must be attained (ie, minimum standard).

Question-02-021

When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards?

A. Process
B. Outcome
C. Structure
D. Criteria

Correct Answer: A. Process

Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The development of standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.

Option B: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.
Option C: Structure standards focus on the settings and environment in which nursing is practiced. This approach may be most suitable for standards developed at the local operational level and written within the framework of the broader standards developed at the national level.
Option D: Criteria is the plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.

Question-02-022

The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is not included?

A. Measure actual performance.
B. Set nursing standards and criteria.
C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives.
D. Identify possible courses of action.

Correct Answer: D. Identify possible courses of action

This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic step in the control process. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

Option A: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some degree.
Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or customer service.
Option C: Effective controlling requires the existence of plans since planning provides the necessary performance standards or objectives. Controlling also requires a clear understanding of where responsibility for deviations from standards lies.

Question-02-023

Which of the following statements refers to criteria?

A. Agreed on level of nursing care.
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.
C. Step-by-step guidelines.
D. Statement which guides the group in decision making and problem-solving.

Correct Answer: B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.

Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the standard of care. Criteria is the plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or selection is based.

Option A: Level of care can be defined as the intensity of effort required to diagnose, treat, preserve or maintain an individual’s physical or emotional status. An alternate level of care is a level of care that can safely be used in place of the current level and determined based on the acuity and complexity of the patient’s condition and the type of needed services and resources.
Option C: The nursing process functions as a systematic guide to client-centered care with 5 sequential steps. These are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
Option D: Decision-making in acute care nursing requires an evaluation of many complex factors. While decision-making research in acute care nursing is prevalent, errors in decision-making continue leading to poor patient outcomes.

Question-02-024

She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is not included in the controlling process?

A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies.

B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital.

C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff.

D. Checking if activities conform to the schedule.

Correct Answer: A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies

Instructing the members involves a directing function. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

Option B: Performance standards are often stated in monetary terms such as revenue, costs, or profits but may also be stated in other terms, such as units produced, number of defective products, or levels of quality or customer service.
Option C: The measurement of performance can be done in several ways, depending on the performance standards, including financial statements, sales reports, production results, customer satisfaction, and formal performance appraisals. Managers at all levels engage in the managerial function of controlling to some degree.
Option D: The managerial function of controlling should not be confused with control in the behavioral or manipulative sense. This function of management concerns the manager’s role in taking necessary actions to ensure that the work-related activities of subordinates are consistent with and contributing toward the accomplishment of organizational and departmental objectives.

Question-02-025

Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is not a process standard?

A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty-four hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure.
C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.

Correct Answer: C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.

This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the patient. Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.

Option A: Fundamentally, process standardization describes the establishment of a set of rules governing how people in an organization are supposed to complete a given task or sequence of tasks.
Option B: When done well, standardization can decrease ambiguity and guesswork, guarantee quality, boost productivity, and increase employee morale. It improves clarity because a standard process will eliminate the need for guesswork or extra searching
Option D: Standardization promotes productivity by eliminating inefficiency. This is the result of eliminating ambiguity and providing quality control: tasks are completed in a more efficient manner, and there are fewer quality control issues from tasks that were not completed correctly the first time around.

Question-02-026

Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?

A. The things that were planned are done.
B. Physicians do not complain.
C. Employees are content.
D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.

Correct Answer: A. The things that were planned are done

Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done. Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.

Option B: Outcome standards measure the effectiveness of the service. They are set according to the type of service provided and the data are collected through systematic use of specific measurement tools such as questionnaires or comparison between pre-test and post-test performance.
Option C: Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the needs of the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities carried out in delivering care. The development of standards and related criterion measures are then guided by the basic principles.
Option D: Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.

Question-02-027

Ms. Valencia is responsible for the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to:

A. Span of control

B. Unity of command

C. Carrot and stick principle

D. Esprit de corps

Correct Answer: A. Span of control

The span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager. The span of control determines the level of interactions and responsibilities associated with employees and managers. The process is used to determine the management style and it also defines roles within the organization.

Option B: Unity of command means an employee should have only one boss and follow his command. If an employee has to follow more than one boss, there begins a conflict of interest and can create confusion.
Option C: The carrot and stick approach of motivation is a traditional motivation theory that asserts, in motivating people to elicit desired behaviors, sometimes the rewards are given in the form of money, promotion, and any other financial or non-financial benefits, and sometimes the punishments are exerted to push an individual towards the desired behavior.
Option D: According to the principle of esprit d’ corps, it is the responsibility of the management to motivate their employees and be supportive of each other regularly. Developing trust and mutual understanding will lead to a positive outcome and work environment.

Question-02-028

She notes that there is increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by the shortage of staff. Which action is a priority?

A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest.
B. Initiate a group interaction.
C. Develop a plan and implement it.
D. Identify external and internal forces.

Correct Answer: B. Initiate a group interaction

Initiating a group interaction will be an opportunity to discuss the problem in the open. Managers should communicate conflict resolution policies and processes to create a sense of safety in the workplace and provide an outlet for employees to report incidents should they feel the need. It is also important to ensure that employees understand any no retaliation policies regarding expressing concerns in the workplace.

Option A: To help employees cope, employers can consider implementing an employee assistance program (EAP). An EAP will help alleviate stress and worry, connect employees with the resources they need to manage their mental health and help prevent potential violence before it occurs.
Option C: Having a plan in place helps organizations remain calm during a chaotic situation. A business continuity plan should detail how the business will respond to a variety of situations.
Option D: Understanding the community, developing processes to address a variety of “what if” scenarios, and exemplifying appropriate behavior will help employers maintain a civil workplace and squash conflicts before they get out of hand.

Question-02-029

Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of patient satisfaction with the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with an average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?

A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications

Correct Answer: C. Age of patients

An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of the researcher but has an effect on the results of the study. Adult patients may be young, middle, or late adults. Extraneous variables are those that produce an association between two variables that are not causally related.

Option A: The date of admission is an independent variable. An independent variable is a variable believed to affect the dependent variable. This is the variable that the researcher will manipulate to see if it makes the dependent variable change.
Option B: The length of stay is an independent variable because it can also affect the dependent variable, which is the level of satisfaction of the patients. To reiterate, the independent variable is the thing over which the researcher has control and is manipulating.
Option D: The absence of complications is another independent variable because it can also affect the level of satisfaction of the patients. The experiment’s dependent variable is the ball throwing, which will hopefully change due to the independent variable. The scientific sentence is, ‘You are going to manipulate an independent variable to see what happens to the dependent variable.’

Question-02-030

He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?

A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson

Correct Answer: B. Sr. Callista Roy

Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function mode, and dependence mode. Developed by Roy in 1976, the Adaptation Model of Nursing asks three central questions: Who is the focus of nursing care? What is the target of nursing care? and When is nursing care indicated? This model looks at the patient from a holistic perspective.

Option A: Martha Rogers’ theory is known as the Science of Unitary Human Beings (SUHB). The theory views nursing as both a science and an art as it provides a way to view the unitary human being, who is integral with the universe. The unitary human being and his or her environment are one.
Option C: The Environmental Theory by Florence Nightingale defined Nursing as “the act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery.” It involves the nurse’s initiative to configure environmental settings appropriate for the gradual restoration of the patient’s health and that external factors associated with the patient’s surroundings affect the life or biologic and physiologic processes and his development.
Option D: Jean Watson’s “Philosophy and Theory of Transpersonal Caring” mainly concerns how nurses care for their patients and how that caring progresses into better plans to promote health and wellness, prevent illness and restore health.

Question-02-031

He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is not true about this method?

A. Most direct means of gathering information.
B. Versatile in terms of content coverage.
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method.

Correct Answer: C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.

The most serious disadvantage of this method is the accuracy and validity of the information gathered. Self-reporting is a common approach for gathering data in epidemiologic and medical research. This method requires participants to respond to the researcher’s questions without his/her interference.

Option A: In general, they are inexpensive and simple to administer, making it possible to collect a broad amount of data in a short time. Today, the possibility of online surveys has made data collection even easier.
Option B: Another important consideration is the relevance of the questions for the specific participants of the survey. If the participant finds the topic interesting and relevant, they are more motivated to respond and complete all the questions.
Option D: In addition, the results can be automatically collected, reducing the risk of errors occurring with manual registration processes. Further, the results are not dependent on an interviewer´s interpretation of behavior, which may influence the results from a clinical interview.

Question-02-032

Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?

A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”
B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”
D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”

Correct Answer: A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”

The article is for pediatric patients and may not be relevant for adult patients. A literature review surveys books, scholarly articles, and any other sources relevant to a particular issue, area of research, or theory, and by so doing, provides a description, summary, and critical evaluation of these works in relation to the research problem being investigated.

Option B: Literature reviews are designed to provide an overview of sources explored while researching a particular topic and to demonstrate to the readers how the research fits within a larger field of study.
Option C: A literature review may consist of simply a summary of key sources, but in the social sciences, a literature review usually has an organizational pattern and combines both summary and synthesis, often within specific conceptual categories.
Option D: It is important to think of knowledge in a given field as consisting of three layers. First, there are the primary studies that researchers conduct and publish. Second, are the reviews of those studies that summarize and offer new interpretations built from and often extending beyond the primary studies. Third, there are the perceptions, conclusions, opinions, and interpretations that are shared informally that become part of the lore of the field.

Question-02-033

Which of the following variables will he likely exclude in his study?

A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff

Correct Answer: C. Salary of nurses

The salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient satisfaction, hence need not be included as a variable in the study. A variable in research simply refers to a person, place, thing, or phenomenon that the researcher is trying to measure in some way. The best way to understand the difference between a dependent and independent variable is that the meaning of each is implied by what the words tell us about the variable the researcher is using.

Option A: The competence of nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. The variable that is stable and unaffected by the other variables the researcher is trying to measure. It refers to the condition of an experiment that is systematically manipulated by the investigator. It is the presumed cause.
Option B: The caring attitude of the nurses can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. An important distinction has to do with the term ‘variable’ is the distinction between an independent and dependent variable. This distinction is particularly relevant when the researcher is investigating cause-effect relationships.
Option D: The responsiveness of the staff can affect the patient’s satisfaction rate, therefore it is an independent variable. Anything that can vary can be considered a variable. For instance, age can be considered a variable because age can take different values for different people or for the same person at different times.

Question-02-034

He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine:

A. Degree of agreement and disagreement
B. Compliance to expected standards
C. Level of satisfaction
D. Degree of acceptance

Correct Answer: A. Degree of agreement and disagreement

Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the respondents to a statement in a study. The Likert scale question is a psychometric scale where questions based on this scale are used in a survey. It is one of the most widely used question types in a survey. In a Likert scale survey, respondents don’t choose between ‘yes/no,’ there are specific choices based on ‘agreeing’ or ‘disagreeing’ on a particular survey question.

Option B: A compliance survey captures statements of compliance on specific issues from various constituencies. Using an online survey to gather such declaration or representation makes the process extremely efficient.
Option C: A numeric scale is a type of rating scale that requires the respondent to provide his or her feedback in terms of numerical values. This type of rating scale equates comparative survey response options to an ordered set of numerical values so that respondents can quantify their opinions.
Option D: A multi-checkbox scale is a type of rating scale that lists different positive and negative attributes that describe a survey respondent’s perception of a product, service, or experience. The multi-checkbox scale is often used to assess a brand’s attitude, rate a user’s experience, or determine the quality of a product.

Question-02-035

He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?

A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity

Correct Answer: B. Reliability

Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.

Option A: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
Option C: Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.
Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible, researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

Question-02-036

Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?

A. Sensitivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity

Correct Answer: A. Sensitivity

Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.

Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
Option C: Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.
Option D: Objectivity in social research is the principle drawn from positivism that, as far as is possible, researchers should remain distanced from what they study so findings depend on the nature of what was studied rather than on the personality, beliefs, and values of the researcher (an approach not accepted by researchers in the critical, standpoint or interpretive traditions).

Question-02-037

Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measured?

A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity

Correct Answer: A. Validity

Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the research topic. Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces accurate results, it should be reproducible.

Option B: Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement a number of times produces the same results.
Option C: Meaningfulness is taking that statistic and determining its applicability out in the real world. So all too often researchers get caught up in chasing statistical significance. And while that’s part of statistics, the focus should tie back to the real world.
Option D: Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish differences in the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.

Question-02-038

He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives an equal chance to all units in the population to get picked?

A. Random
B. Accidental
C. Quota
D. Judgment

Correct Answer: A. Random

Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample. Random sampling is a part of the sampling technique in which each sample has an equal probability of being chosen. A sample chosen randomly is meant to be an unbiased representation of the total population. An unbiased random sample is important for drawing conclusions.

Option B: Accidental sampling, also known as grab or opportunity sampling, is a form of non-probability sampling that involves taking a population sample that is close at hand, rather than carefully determined and obtained. Accidental samples are not as experimentally sound as using random sampling and random assignment.
Option C: Quota sampling is defined as a non-probability sampling method in which researchers create a sample involving individuals that represent a population. Researchers choose these individuals according to specific traits or qualities.
Option D: A judgment sample, or expert sample, is a type of random sample that is selected based on the opinion of an expert. Judgment sampling is noble to provide detailed information about the difficulties in obtaining the distinction. A random sample would provide less bias, but potentially less raw information.

Question-02-039

Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study?

A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology

Correct Answer: B. Ethnography

Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of selected people within a culture. Ethnography is a study through direct observation of users in their natural environment rather than in a lab. The objective of this type of research is to gain insights into how users interact with things in their natural environment.

Option A: Grounded theory is a well-known methodology employed in many research studies. Grounded theory sets out to discover or construct theory from data, systematically obtained and analyzed using comparative analysis. While the grounded theory is inherently flexible, it is a complex methodology.
Option C: A case study is a research approach that is used to generate an in-depth, multi-faceted understanding of a complex issue in its real-life context. It is an established research design that is used extensively in a wide variety of disciplines, particularly in the social sciences.
Option D: Phenomenological research has overlapped with other essentially qualitative approaches including ethnography, hermeneutics, and symbolic interactionism. Pure phenomenological research seeks essentially to describe rather than explain, and to start from a perspective free from hypotheses or preconceptions (Husserl 1970).

Question-02-040

The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is

A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy

Correct Answer: B. Madeleine Leininger

Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture. It involves learning and understanding various cultures regarding nursing and health-illness caring practices, beliefs, and values to implement significant and efficient nursing care services to people according to their cultural values and health-illness context.

Option A: In her Self-Care Theory, she defined Nursing as “The act of assisting others in the provision and management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at the home level of effectiveness.”
Option C: In Neuman’s System Model, she defined nursing as a “unique profession in that is concerned with all of the variables affecting an individual’s response to stress.” The focus is on the client as a system (which may be an individual, family, group, or community) and on the client’s responses to stressors.
Option D: In Adaptation Model, Roy defined nursing as a “health care profession that focuses on human life processes and patterns and emphasizes the promotion of health for individuals, families, groups, and society as a whole.”